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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Liberhan Commission of Inquiry was related to which of the following?
Correct
The Liberhan Ayodhya Commission of Inquiry was a long-running inquiry commissioned by the Government of India to investigate the destruction of the Ram Janma Bhoomi-Babri Masjid structure on 6 December 1992.
Headed by Justice M. S. Liberhan, set up on December 16, 1992, the Commission was initially asked to give a report in three months. Extensions were given 48 times, and after a delay of about 17 years, the one-man commission submitted the report in 2009.Incorrect
The Liberhan Ayodhya Commission of Inquiry was a long-running inquiry commissioned by the Government of India to investigate the destruction of the Ram Janma Bhoomi-Babri Masjid structure on 6 December 1992.
Headed by Justice M. S. Liberhan, set up on December 16, 1992, the Commission was initially asked to give a report in three months. Extensions were given 48 times, and after a delay of about 17 years, the one-man commission submitted the report in 2009. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI):
1.It has been released by the NITI Aayog.
2.It is based on survey assessing different Ministries/Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes and Centrally Sponsored Schemes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries /Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September 2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO), NITI Aayog has undertaken Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) exercise to assess different Ministries /Departments’ performance on the implementation of Central Sector Schemes (CS) and Centrally Sponsored Schemes (CSS). It is a self-assessment-based review of data preparedness levels across Ministries / Departments to produce a DGQI score card.
Accordingly, a survey was initiated with the objective of assessing data preparedness of Ministries / Departments on a standardized framework to drive healthy competition among them and promote cooperative peer learning from best practices.
# The Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) was constituted in September 2015 by merging the erstwhile Program Evaluation Office (PEO) and the Independent Evaluation Office (IEO). It is an attached office under NITI Aayog, aimed at fulfilling the organization’s monitoring and evaluation (M&E) mandate and building the M&E ecosystem in India. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR):
1.It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act (POCSO Act) 2012.
2.The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to deprivation and violation of child rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
Statement 2 is correct. The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to-
– Deprivation and violation of child rights;
– Non-implementation of laws providing for protection and development of children;
– Non-compliance of policy decisions, guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships to and ensuring welfare of the children and to provide relief to such children.
# NCPCR also monitors the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005 under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women & Child Development.
The Commission’s Mandate is to ensure that all Laws, Policies, Programmes, and Administrative Mechanisms are in consonance with the Child Rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and also the UN Convention on the Rights of the Child. The Child is defined as a person in the 0 to 18 years age group.
Statement 2 is correct. The commission may inquire into complaints and take suo-motu notice of matters relating to-
– Deprivation and violation of child rights;
– Non-implementation of laws providing for protection and development of children;
– Non-compliance of policy decisions, guidelines or instructions aimed at mitigating hardships to and ensuring welfare of the children and to provide relief to such children.
# NCPCR also monitors the implementation of Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, 2012. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following was/were the recommendation(s) of the Justice J.S. Verma Committee?
1. It rejected the proposal for chemical castration for crimes against women.
2. Electoral candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
3. It proposed death penalty for the offence of rape.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013.
Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape.
Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape.Incorrect
Justice Verma Committee was constituted to recommend amendments to the Criminal Law so as to provide for quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women. The Committee submitted its report in January 2013.
Statement 1 is correct. The Committee rejected the proposal for chemical castration as it fails to treat the social foundations of rape.
Statement 2 is correct. The Committee recommended the amendment of the Representation of People Act, 1951. The Committee was of the opinion that filing of charge sheet and cognizance by the Court was sufficient for disqualification of a candidate under the Act. It further recommended that candidates should be disqualified for committing sexual offences.
Statement 3 is incorrect. It opined that death penalty should not be awarded for the offence of rape as there was considerable evidence that death penalty was not a deterrence to serious crimes. It recommended life imprisonment for rape. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Indo-Pacific Division of the Ministry of External Affairs deals with which of the following matters?
1. East Asia Summit
2. Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA)
3. Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Given the increasing salience of the Indo-Pacific concept in global discourse, the Ministry of External Affairs established a new Division for the Indo-Pacific in April 2019.
Indo-Pacific Division deals with matters relating to the Indo-Pacific, India-ASEAN relations, East Asia Summit, Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM), Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and Ayeyawady-Chao Phraya-Mekong Economic Cooperation Strategy (ACMECS).
# Asia Europe Meeting (ASEM) is the biggest inter-governmental process between Asia and Europe. It currently has 53 Partners – 51 countries and 2 regional organisations (ASEAN and European Union).Incorrect
Given the increasing salience of the Indo-Pacific concept in global discourse, the Ministry of External Affairs established a new Division for the Indo-Pacific in April 2019.
Indo-Pacific Division deals with matters relating to the Indo-Pacific, India-ASEAN relations, East Asia Summit, Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), Asia-Europe Meeting (ASEM), Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) and Ayeyawady-Chao Phraya-Mekong Economic Cooperation Strategy (ACMECS).
# Asia Europe Meeting (ASEM) is the biggest inter-governmental process between Asia and Europe. It currently has 53 Partners – 51 countries and 2 regional organisations (ASEAN and European Union). - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following committee(s) relate to criminal law reforms in India?
1. Malimath Committee
2. Ranbir Singh Committee
3. K. Kasturirangan Committee
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. The Malimath Committee (2000) constituted by the Home Ministry on reforms in the Criminal Justice System of India submitted its report in 2003
Option 2 is correct. Ranbir Singh Committee for Reforms in Criminal Laws was constituted by the Union Home Ministry in May 2020. This committee is looking into the IPC, the CrPC (the Code of Criminal Procedure), the Indian Evidence Act and the Narcotics Act.
Option 3 is incorrect. Dr K. Kasturirangan Committee was set up to recommend the New National Education Policy of India. The report was submitted in 2019 and the NEP 2020 was notified recently.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The Malimath Committee (2000) constituted by the Home Ministry on reforms in the Criminal Justice System of India submitted its report in 2003
Option 2 is correct. Ranbir Singh Committee for Reforms in Criminal Laws was constituted by the Union Home Ministry in May 2020. This committee is looking into the IPC, the CrPC (the Code of Criminal Procedure), the Indian Evidence Act and the Narcotics Act.
Option 3 is incorrect. Dr K. Kasturirangan Committee was set up to recommend the New National Education Policy of India. The report was submitted in 2019 and the NEP 2020 was notified recently. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhat was the mandate of the K.S. Radhakrishnan Committee?
Correct
Supreme Court’s Road Safety Committee headed the Justice KS Radhakrishnan was formed by the apex court on the basis of a PIL to measure and monitor the implementation of road safety laws in the country.
In its report [2015], the panel has recommended for ban on sale of alcohol on highways, both National and State highways, to curb the menace of road accident.
A total of 151,113 people were killed in 480,652 road accidents across India in 2019, an average of 414 a day or 17 an hour, according to a report by the transport research wing of the ministry of road transport and highways.
According to the report, speeding was the leading cause of deaths, while, in terms of vehicles, two-wheelers were involved in most road fatalities.Incorrect
Supreme Court’s Road Safety Committee headed the Justice KS Radhakrishnan was formed by the apex court on the basis of a PIL to measure and monitor the implementation of road safety laws in the country.
In its report [2015], the panel has recommended for ban on sale of alcohol on highways, both National and State highways, to curb the menace of road accident.
A total of 151,113 people were killed in 480,652 road accidents across India in 2019, an average of 414 a day or 17 an hour, according to a report by the transport research wing of the ministry of road transport and highways.
According to the report, speeding was the leading cause of deaths, while, in terms of vehicles, two-wheelers were involved in most road fatalities. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityIndia continued to have the most road fatalities in the world, followed by China.
Which of the following was determined by the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula?
Correct
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula.Incorrect
The Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula for allocation of Central Plan Assistance to states was adopted by the National Development Council (NDC) meeting held in 1990.
On the demand of State Governments for a revision, a Committee under Shri Pranab Mukherjee, then Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission was constituted to evolve a suitable formula. The suggestions made by the Committee were considered by NDC in December 1991, where following a consensus, the Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula was adopted.
It was made the basis for allocation post 8th FYP (1992-97). After setting apart funds required for (a) Externally Aided Projects and (b) Special Area Programme, 30% of the balance of Central Assistance for State Plans is provided to the Special Category States. The remaining amount is distributed among the non-Special Category States, as per Gadgil-Mukherjee Formula. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following force(s) is/are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs?
1. Assam Rifles (AR)
2. Border Security Force (BSF)
3. Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains seven CAPFs: (i) the Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency, (ii) the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings, (iii) the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and (iv) four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The administrative control of the Assam Rifles is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, the operational control of Assam Rifles rests with the Ministry of Defence.Incorrect
Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains seven CAPFs: (i) the Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency, (ii) the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings, (iii) the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and (iv) four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The administrative control of the Assam Rifles is with the Ministry of Home Affairs, the operational control of Assam Rifles rests with the Ministry of Defence. - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following force(s) is/are under the administrative control of Ministry of Home Affairs?
1. Border Security Force (BSF)
2. Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
3. Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
4. Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
: Under the Constitution, police and public order are state subjects. However, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains following CAPFs: The Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency; the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings; the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The dual control structure for Assam Rifles, which comes under both the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has been recently under judicial scrutiny.Incorrect
: Under the Constitution, police and public order are state subjects. However, the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) assists state governments by providing them support of the Central Armed Police Forces.
The Ministry maintains following CAPFs: The Central Reserve Police Force, which assists in internal security and counterinsurgency; the Central Industrial Security Force, which protects vital installations (like airports) and public sector undertakings; the National Security Guards, which is a special counterterrorism force, and four border guarding forces, which are the Border Security Force, Indo-Tibetan Border Police, Sashastra Seema Bal, and Assam Rifles.
The dual control structure for Assam Rifles, which comes under both the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Defence (MoD) has been recently under judicial scrutiny. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the PM CARES Fund:
1. The fund in addition to the voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations also gets a budgetary support from Union Government.
2. It can accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
With the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund’ (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
Statement 2 is correct. PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
# This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011Incorrect
With the primary objective of dealing with any kind of emergency or distress situation, like posed by the COVID-19 pandemic, and to provide relief to the affected, a public charitable trust under the name of ‘Prime Minister’s Citizen Assistance and Relief in Emergency Situations Fund’ (PM CARES Fund)’ has been set up.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The fund consists entirely of voluntary contributions from individuals/organizations and does not get any budgetary support.
Statement 2 is correct. PM CARES Fund has also got exemption under the FCRA and a separate account for receiving foreign donations has been opened. This enables PM CARES Fund to accept donations and contributions from individuals and organizations based in foreign countries.
# This is consistent with respect to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund (PMNRF). PMNRF has also received foreign contributions as a public trust since 2011 - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Streets for People Challenge:
1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
2. It aims to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Streets for People Challenge is an initiative of the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Statement 2 is correct. The challenge aims to inspire cities to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures, in response to COVID-19.
As the lockdowns lift, cities face many challenges in providing safe, affordable, and equitable modes of transport that enable social distancing. Limited public transport options, narrow, crowded sidewalks particularly in market places and deterioration of mental health, are key issues that must be addressed on priority.
All cities participating in the challenge shall be encouraged to use the ‘test-learn-scale’ approach to initiate both, flagship and neighbourhood walking interventions.
The interventions can include inter alia creating pedestrian-friendly streets in high footfall areas, re-imagining under-flyover spaces, re-vitalizing dead neighbourhood spaces, and creating walking links through parks and institutional areas.
Fit India Mission, under Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with the India program of the Institute for Transport Development and Policy (ITDP) have partnered with the Smart Cities Mission to support the challenge.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Streets for People Challenge is an initiative of the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA).
Statement 2 is correct. The challenge aims to inspire cities to create walking-friendly streets through quick measures, in response to COVID-19.
As the lockdowns lift, cities face many challenges in providing safe, affordable, and equitable modes of transport that enable social distancing. Limited public transport options, narrow, crowded sidewalks particularly in market places and deterioration of mental health, are key issues that must be addressed on priority.
All cities participating in the challenge shall be encouraged to use the ‘test-learn-scale’ approach to initiate both, flagship and neighbourhood walking interventions.
The interventions can include inter alia creating pedestrian-friendly streets in high footfall areas, re-imagining under-flyover spaces, re-vitalizing dead neighbourhood spaces, and creating walking links through parks and institutional areas.
Fit India Mission, under Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, along with the India program of the Institute for Transport Development and Policy (ITDP) have partnered with the Smart Cities Mission to support the challenge. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following statement correctly defines a Zero FIR?
Correct
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information.Incorrect
First Information Report (FIR) is prepared by the police based on a complaint or available information in the case of cognizable offences. The information or the complaint is provided by an informant as per Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure.
Zero FIR is a FIR lodged in any police station irrespective of the location of incidence or jurisdiction of the police station. It is later transferred to the appropriate jurisdictional police station.
Based on the Justice Verma Committee report, the Home Ministry, in 2013, issued an advisory to all states and union territories asking the police to register Zero FIR if an informant comes with the details of a cognizable crime irrespective of the jurisdiction in order to initiate investigation at the earliest.
# Cognizable offences are those which do not require an order from magistrate, and which requires the police to take immediate action on receipt of complaint or information. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Education was moved from State list to Concurrent List through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
2.Kothari Commission was set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India.Incorrect
: Statement 1 is correct. Through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, 1976 Five subjects were transferred from State to Concurrent List: Education, Forests, Weights & Measures, Protection of Wild Animals and Birds, and Administration of Justice.
Statement 2 is correct. National Education Commission also known as Kothari Commission (1964-1966) was an ad hoc commission set up by the Government of India to examine all aspects of the educational sector in India, to evolve a general pattern of education and to advise guidelines and policies for the development of education in India. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Bamboo is classified as a tree under the Indian Forest Act.
2. Bamboo has potential for its use as a clean source of energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian Forest Act 1927 says “forest produce” is what is found in or brought from a forest. This originally included bamboo as trees.
The Parliament amendment the act in 2017 to exclude bamboo from the definition of tree under the Indian Forest Act, claiming it would improve the earnings of tribals and dwellers living around forests.
Statement 2 is correct. Bamboo pellets are considered reliable biomass energy sources in certain parts of the world. In terms of mass and energy density, pellets from bamboo have characteristics superior to other biomass products, such as woodchips and briquettes.
Such higher density allows for easy and cost-effective transportation and greater efficiency in energy generation with suitable properties for residential and industrial use.
# Minister of DONER at inauguration of Virtual Bamboo Exhibition stated that ‘Bamboo has great potential for its use as a clean source of energy and can also replace the single use plastic, thus promoting the environment and Climate cause in India’. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
1.It is a gender neutral law with regards to that an aggrieved person can either be male or female.
2.The act covers ‘economic abuse’ in the category of domestic violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities. - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are provided for by the Disaster Management Act, 2005?
1. National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)
2. National Executive Committee (NEC)
3. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Disaster Management Act was passed with the primary objective of preparedness, prevention and early planning towards disaster.
It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels. Four important entities have been placed at the national level:
–The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanism.
–The National Executive Committee (NEC) comprised of secretary level officers of the Government of India assigned to assist the NDMA
–The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is an institute for planning and promoting training and research in the area of disaster management, documentation and development of national level information base relating to disaster management policies.
–National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster.Incorrect
The Disaster Management Act was passed with the primary objective of preparedness, prevention and early planning towards disaster.
It puts into place a systematic structure of institutions at the national, state and district levels. Four important entities have been placed at the national level:
–The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) tasked with laying down disaster management policies and ensuring timely and effective response mechanism.
–The National Executive Committee (NEC) comprised of secretary level officers of the Government of India assigned to assist the NDMA
–The National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is an institute for planning and promoting training and research in the area of disaster management, documentation and development of national level information base relating to disaster management policies.
–National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for the purpose of specialist response to a threatening disaster situation or disaster. - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the recently amended Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 the ‘News and current affairs content on online platforms’ is under which of the following Ministry?
Correct
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
Incorrect
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityThe Central Government can designate an individual as terrorist under Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act on which of the following grounds?
1. Commits or participates in acts of terrorism
2. Promotes or encourages terrorism
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 additionally empowered the
government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds.Incorrect
Under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, the central government may designate an organisation as a terrorist organisation if it: (i) commits or participates in acts of terrorism, (ii) prepares for terrorism, (iii) promotes terrorism, or (iv) is otherwise involved in terrorism.
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019 additionally empowered the
government to designate individuals as terrorists on the same grounds. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the ‘Asol Chini’ campaign:
- It has been launched by the Government of West Bengal.
- It aims to fight fake information and rumour spreading on social media.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of Bangladesh has launched a
campaign named ‘Asol Chini’ or ‘real-sugar’.
Statement 2 is correct. Asol Chini campaign aims to fight fake information and rumour
spreading on social media. The campaign aims to create digital literacy to stop fake
information and rumours.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Government of Bangladesh has launched a
campaign named ‘Asol Chini’ or ‘real-sugar’.
Statement 2 is correct. Asol Chini campaign aims to fight fake information and rumour
spreading on social media. The campaign aims to create digital literacy to stop fake
information and rumours.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Domestic Violence Act, 2005:
- It is a gender neutral law with regards to that an aggrieved person can either be male or female.
- The act covers ‘economic abuse’ in the category of domestic violence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 is not a gender neutral law. An “aggrieved person” is defined under the act as any woman who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent and who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the respondent.
Statement 2 is correct. Domestic Violence includes causing any harm or injury to the safety, life, health or well-being of the aggrieved woman by committing any physical, sexual, verbal or economic abuse.
“Economic Abuse” is depriving the aggrieved woman from all sorts of financial resources to which she is entitled to under any law or custom or legal order or which she requires out of necessity, such as for running the household, taking care of the children etc.
It also includes alienation of the movable or immovable assets in which she has interest too, prohibiting the aggrieved woman or putting restriction on her to continue the use of resources or facilities.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the recently amended Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 the ‘News and current affairs content on online platforms’ is under which of the following Ministry?
Correct
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.
# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
Incorrect
Currently, there is no law or autonomous body governing digital content. The Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 have been amended recently to add following items under Ministry of Information and Broadcasting;
Digital/Online media:
–Films and Audio-Visual programmes made available by online content providers.
–News and current affairs content on online platforms
# At present, the Press Council of India regulates the print media, the News Broadcasters Association (NBA) represents the news channels, the Advertising Standards Council of India regulates advertising, while the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) monitors films.
# This will give the government control over OTT platforms, which were unregulated till now.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020:
- It is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) and the Parliament of Austria.
- The Loksabha Speaker from India is a participant in this first ever world conference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020 is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), Geneva and the Parliament of Austria with the support of the United Nations (UN).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lok Sabha Speaker from India is a participant along with few MPs from India. This is not the first but fifth edition of the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament.
The theme of the Conference is Parliamentary leadership for more effective multilateralism that delivers peace and sustainable development for the people and planet.
The first Conference of Presiding Officers of National Parliaments took place in August 2000. The commitment of Member States for greater cooperation with the world of parliaments was embedded in the final declaration of the 2000 Summit, known as the Millennium Declaration.
Fourth World Conference of Speakers of Parliament was held in September 2015.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The World Conference of Speakers of Parliament 2020 is being organized jointly by the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU), Geneva and the Parliament of Austria with the support of the United Nations (UN).
Statement 2 is incorrect. Lok Sabha Speaker from India is a participant along with few MPs from India. This is not the first but fifth edition of the World Conference of Speakers of Parliament.
The theme of the Conference is Parliamentary leadership for more effective multilateralism that delivers peace and sustainable development for the people and planet.
The first Conference of Presiding Officers of National Parliaments took place in August 2000. The commitment of Member States for greater cooperation with the world of parliaments was embedded in the final declaration of the 2000 Summit, known as the Millennium Declaration.
Fourth World Conference of Speakers of Parliament was held in September 2015.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the modern democracies, which of the following is/are the types of power sharing arrangements?
- Power sharing between different organs of the government.
- Power sharing among governments at different levels.
- Power sharing among different social groups.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level
- Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Power may also be shared among different social groups, such as the religious and linguistic groups.
In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
In contemporary democracies this takes the form of competition among different parties.
Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
In the long run power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
Incorrect
In modern democracies, power sharing arrangements can take many forms.
Power is shared among different organs of government, such as the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Let us call this horizontal distribution of power because it allows different organs of government placed at the same level to exercise different powers.
Such a separation ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.
Each organ checks the others. This results in a balance of power among various institutions.
Power can be shared among governments at different levels – a general government for the entire country and governments at the provincial or regional level
- Such a general government for the entire country is usually called federal government.
In India, we refer to it as the Central or Union Government.
Power may also be shared among different social groups, such as the religious and linguistic groups.
In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements whereby socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
Power sharing arrangements can also be seen in the way political parties, pressure groups and movements control or influence those in power.
In a democracy, the citizens must have freedom to choose among various contenders for power.
In contemporary democracies this takes the form of competition among different parties.
Such competition ensures that power does not remain in one hand.
In the long run power is shared among different political parties that represent different ideologies and social groups.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are the example (s) of “coming together federations”?
- United States of America
- Australia
- Belgium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
This type of ‘coming together’ federations includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government.
The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.
In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States
Incorrect
There are two kinds of routes through which federations have been formed.
The first route involves independent States coming together on their own to form a bigger unit, so that by pooling sovereignty and retaining identity they can increase their security.
This type of ‘coming together’ federations includes the USA, Switzerland and Australia.
In this first category of federations, all the constituent States usually have equal power and are strong vis-à-vis the federal government.
The second route is where a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent States and the national government.
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of this kind of ‘holding together’ federations.
In this second category, the central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the States
Miscellaneous Part-2
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- Question 1 of 3
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB):
1. It is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
2. The permanent secretariat of A-WEB is located at Seoul.
3. Election Commission of India hosted the 4th General Assembly of Association of World Election Bodies (A- WEB) at Bengaluru.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
•It is established on October 14, 2013 in Song-do, South Korea and the permanent secretariat is located at Seoul.
• Representatives from election bodies in over 50 countries will congregate in Bengaluru to share their electoral experience with programmes connected to the Fourth General Assembly of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
• Currently, the A-WEB has 115 members and 20 regional associations/ organizations as associate members.
• The members include 24 from Asia, 37 from Africa, 31 from America, 17 from Europe, and six from Oceania.
• The ECI will continue to remain on the executive board of the A-WEB for 2021–23 in its capacity as immediate former chair of the A-WEB.Incorrect
The Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB) is the largest association of Election Management Bodies (EMBs) worldwide.
•It is established on October 14, 2013 in Song-do, South Korea and the permanent secretariat is located at Seoul.
• Representatives from election bodies in over 50 countries will congregate in Bengaluru to share their electoral experience with programmes connected to the Fourth General Assembly of the Association of World Election Bodies (A-WEB).
• Currently, the A-WEB has 115 members and 20 regional associations/ organizations as associate members.
• The members include 24 from Asia, 37 from Africa, 31 from America, 17 from Europe, and six from Oceania.
• The ECI will continue to remain on the executive board of the A-WEB for 2021–23 in its capacity as immediate former chair of the A-WEB. - Question 2 of 3
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Section 124-A” of Indian Penal Code is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The section 124-A deals with the offence of sedition, a term that covers speech or writing, or any form of visible representation, which brings the government into hatred or contempt, or excites disaffection towards the government, or attempts to do so.
• It is punishable with three years in prison or a life term. “Disaffection”, it says, includes disloyalty and feelings of enmity.
• However, it also says expressing disapproval of government measures or actions, with a view to getting them changed by lawful means, without promoting hatred or disaffection or contempt towards the government will not come under this section.
• Sedition was introduced in the penal code in 1870; a decade after the Indian Penal Code came into force. It was a colonial law directed against strong criticism of the British administration.
• Its most famous victims included Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called it “the prince among the political sections of the IPC designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen”.
• Two high courts had found it unconstitutional after Independence, as it violated the freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution was amended to include ‘public order’ as one of the ‘reasonable restrictions’ on which free speech could be abridged by law.
• Thereafter, the Supreme Court, in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld its validity. At the same time, it limited its application to acts that involve “intention or tendency to create disorder” or incitement to violence.
• Thus, even strongly worded remarks, as long as they do not excite disloyalty and enmity, or incite violence, are not offences under this section.Incorrect
The section 124-A deals with the offence of sedition, a term that covers speech or writing, or any form of visible representation, which brings the government into hatred or contempt, or excites disaffection towards the government, or attempts to do so.
• It is punishable with three years in prison or a life term. “Disaffection”, it says, includes disloyalty and feelings of enmity.
• However, it also says expressing disapproval of government measures or actions, with a view to getting them changed by lawful means, without promoting hatred or disaffection or contempt towards the government will not come under this section.
• Sedition was introduced in the penal code in 1870; a decade after the Indian Penal Code came into force. It was a colonial law directed against strong criticism of the British administration.
• Its most famous victims included Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi. Gandhi called it “the prince among the political sections of the IPC designed to suppress the liberty of the citizen”.
• Two high courts had found it unconstitutional after Independence, as it violated the freedom of speech and expression. The Constitution was amended to include ‘public order’ as one of the ‘reasonable restrictions’ on which free speech could be abridged by law.
• Thereafter, the Supreme Court, in Kedar Nath Singh v. State of Bihar (1962) upheld its validity. At the same time, it limited its application to acts that involve “intention or tendency to create disorder” or incitement to violence.
• Thus, even strongly worded remarks, as long as they do not excite disloyalty and enmity, or incite violence, are not offences under this section. - Question 3 of 3
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU):
1. It is an organ of the United Nations.
2. India and China are both members to the IPU.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is the global
organization of national parliaments and not a UN organ.
It is financed primarily by Members out of public funds. Its headquarters are in Geneva,
Switzerland.
# The main organs of the UN are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic
and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the UN
Secretariat.
Statement 2 is correct. The IPU has 179 Member Parliaments out of the 193 countries in
the world – from huge nations like China, India and Indonesia, to the tiny States of Cabo
Verde, San Marino and Palau.
All parliaments can join IPU if they are lawfully established national bodies operating in
States or aspirational States recognized by the United Nations. On rare occasions, Members
are suspended due to the unconstitutional dissolution of parliament.
# Lok Sabha Speaker will lead Indian Parliamentary delegation to 206th session of Governing
Council of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) to be held from 1 to 4 November 2020.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) is the global
organization of national parliaments and not a UN organ.
It is financed primarily by Members out of public funds. Its headquarters are in Geneva,
Switzerland.
# The main organs of the UN are the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic
and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the UN
Secretariat.
Statement 2 is correct. The IPU has 179 Member Parliaments out of the 193 countries in
the world – from huge nations like China, India and Indonesia, to the tiny States of Cabo
Verde, San Marino and Palau.
All parliaments can join IPU if they are lawfully established national bodies operating in
States or aspirational States recognized by the United Nations. On rare occasions, Members
are suspended due to the unconstitutional dissolution of parliament.
# Lok Sabha Speaker will lead Indian Parliamentary delegation to 206th session of Governing
Council of Inter-Parliamentary Union (IPU) to be held from 1 to 4 November 2020.