Consider the following statements:Statement-I: In the 18th century, the British monopolized opium production in Purvanchal, yielding significant profits, while in Malwa, they had less control over opium production.Statement-II: In the western part of India, the East India Company’s influence was mainly restricted to Bombay during the 18th century.Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q. Consider the following statements::
Statement-I: In the 18th century, the British monopolized opium production in Purvanchal, yielding significant profits, while in Malwa, they had less control over opium production.
Statement-II: In the western part of India, the East India Company’s influence was mainly restricted to Bombay during the 18th century.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

[A] Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

[B] Both Statement-I and Statement-II ate correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

[C] Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

[D] Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: A

Notes:

Explanation –

Statement 1 and 2 are correct. In the 18th century, the British monopolized opium production in Purvanchal (now Bihar, Jharkhand, and eastern UP), yielding significant profits, while in Malwa (parts of Rajasthan, MP, Maharashtra, etc.) they had less control over opium production. This was because they had more influence in the Northern and Eastern India by winning the battle of Buxar, Plassey compared to the western India in the 18^th century. It was in the 19^th century the British held a greater influence in the western part of India, i.e., after the Maratha wars.

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