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Around 2 weeks are remaining for UPSC Prelims 2022. This time period is crucial for practicing as many questions as possible to start taking the examination feel. Thus, we have created a topic-wise list of Polity questions for prelims as per the subjects.
Basics of Constitution– 2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66

Basics of Constitution– 2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe Regulating Act 1773 has a great constitutional importance due to which of the following?
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
- It was the first step to recognize the political,economicand administrative functions of the Company.
- It laid the foundations of decentralized administration in India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Regulating act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India;
- It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
- It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Regulating act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as
- It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India;
- It recognized, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
- It laid the foundations of central administration in India.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are the features of Act of Settlement, 1781?
- It exempted the Governor-General from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity and not executive council.
- It empowered the Supreme Court to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity.
- Similarly, it also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for their official actions.
- It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
- It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta.
- It also required the court to administer the personal law of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
- It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
- It empowered the Governor-General- in – Council to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In a bid to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act of 1773, the British Parliament passed the Amending Act of 1781, also known as the Act of Settlement.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It exempted the Governor-General and the Council from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for the acts done by them in their official capacity.
- Similarly, it also exempted the servants of the company from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court for their official actions.
- It excluded the revenue matters and the matters arising in the collection of revenue from the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
- It provided that the Supreme Court was to have jurisdiction over all the inhabitants of Calcutta.
- It also required the court to administer the personal law of the defendants i.e., Hindus were to be tried according to the Hindu law and Muslims were to be tried according to the Mohammedan law.
- It laid down that the appeals from the Provincial Courts could be taken to the Governor-General-in-Council and not to the Supreme Court.
- It empowered the Governor-General- in – Council to frame regulations for the Provincial Courts and Councils.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following Act distinguish the commercial and political functions of the Company?
Correct
Pitts India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Pitts India Act, 1784 distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are features of Charter Act of 1813?
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India.
- Act did not assert the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It did not allow the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants.
- However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
- It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants.
- However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.
- It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India.
- It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following words are mentioned in Objectives Resolution?
- Sovereign
- Residuary powers
- Integrity
- Justice
- Freedom
- World Peace
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
- “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a constitution.
- Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all; and
- wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting there from; and
- where in all power and authority of the sovereign independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people; and
- Where in shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality; and
- Where in adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes; and
- Where by shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and
- This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.”
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
On December 13, 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’ in the Assembly. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure. It read:
- “This Constituent Assembly declares its firm and solemn resolve to proclaim India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and to draw up for her future governance a constitution.
- Wherein the territories that now comprise British India, the territories that now form the Indian States and such other parts of India as are outside India and the States as well as other territories as are willing to be constituted into the independent sovereign India, shall be a Union of them all; and
- wherein the said territories, whether with their present boundaries or with such others as may be determined by the Constituent Assembly and thereafter according to the law of the Constitution, shall possess and retain the status of autonomous units together with residuary powers and exercise all powers and functions of Government and administration save and except such powers and functions as are vested in or assigned to the Union or as are inherent or implied in the Union or resulting there from; and
- where in all power and authority of the sovereign independent India, its constituent parts and organs of Government are derived from the people; and
- Where in shall be guaranteed and secured to all the people of India justice, social, economic and political; equality of status of opportunity, and before the law; freedom of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship, vocation, association and action, subject to law and public morality; and
- Where in adequate safeguards shall be provided for minorities, backward and tribal areas, and depressed and other backward classes; and
- Where by shall be maintained the integrity of the territory of the Republic and its sovereign rights on land, sea and air according to justice and the law of civilized nations; and
- This ancient land attains its rightful and honored place in the world and makes its full and willing contribution to the promotion of world peace and the welfare of mankind.”
This Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947. It influenced the eventual shaping of the constitution through all its subsequent stages. Its modified version forms the Preamble of the present Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWho among the following was headed the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas?
Correct
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas – Sardar Patel.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe structural part of the Indian Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from which of the following?
Correct
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryThe Indian Constitution has been described as ‘quasi-federal’ by whom among the following?
Correct
Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but, unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralizing tendency’ by Ivor Jennings and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Indian Constitution has been variously described as ‘federal in form but, unitary in spirit’, ‘quasi-federal’ by K.C. Wheare, ‘bargaining federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative federalism’ by Granville Austin, ‘federation with a centralizing tendency’ by Ivor Jennings and so on.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is/are the features of Parliamentary form of Government?
- Minority party rule
- Dissolution of the lower House
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ Model of Government, responsible Government and Cabinet Government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre, but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
- Presence of nominal and real executives;
- Majority party rule,
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
- Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
- Leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister,
- Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ Model of Government, responsible Government and Cabinet Government. The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre, but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
- Presence of nominal and real executives;
- Majority party rule,
- Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature,
- Membership of the ministers in the legislature,
- Leadership of the Prime Minister or the Chief Minister,
- Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: HistoryWhich of the following is the ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution?
Correct
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
- They can be classified into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution.
- They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
- They can be classified into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal intellectual.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Basics of Constitution– 2020 and Before that
Basics of Constitution
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the eighth schedule of the Constitution?
1. English
2. Dogri
3. Garhwali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following takes oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution”?
Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
1. Kashmiri
2. Nepali
3. RajasthaniCorrect
: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.Incorrect
: The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004. - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary systems of government:
1. Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
2. The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following National Identity Element(s) of India have adaptation(s) from Ashoka’s reign?
1. State Emblem of India
2. National Flag
3. National Calendar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following languages have been recognized by the government as Classical Languages of India?
1. Kannada
2. Malayalam
3. Bengali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.Incorrect
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following States in chronological order of their creation:
1. Chhattisgarh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribalsIncorrect
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Constitution Day of India:
- It is celebrated to commemorate the coming into effect of the Constitution of India.
- The date of the Constitution Day is mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
- Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the eighth schedule of the Constitution?
- English
- Dogri
- Garhwali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following takes oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution”?
Correct
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.
Incorrect
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and Minister of the Union take oath subscribing “allegiance to the Constitution of India as by law established”. [THIRD SCHEDULE]
The President [Article 60] and Governor of States [Article 159] take oath to “preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law”.
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
- Kashmiri
- Nepali
- Rajasthani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22 languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8) Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit, (15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22) Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary systems of government:
- Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
- The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct.In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following National Identity Element(s) of India have adaptation(s) from Ashoka’s reign?
- State Emblem of India
- National Flag
- National Calendar
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. The state emblem is an adaptation from the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. In the state emblem, adopted by the Government of India on 26 January 1950, only three lions are visible.
In the original, there are four lions, standing back to back, mounted on an abacus with a frieze carrying sculptures in high relief of an elephant, a galloping horse, a bull and a lion separated by intervening wheels over a bell-shaped lotus. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the Capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra).
Option 2 is correct. The National Flag is a horizontal tricolor of India saffron at the top, white in the middle and India green at the bottom in equal proportion.
In the centre of the white band is a navy-blue wheel which represents the chakra. Its design is that of the wheel which appears on the abacus of the Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Its diameter approximates to the width of the white band and it has 24 spokes.
Option 3 is incorrect. The national calendar based on the Saka Era, with Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365 days was adopted from 22 March 1957 along with the Gregorian calendar for the following official purposes. It commenced in 78 AD.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following languages have been recognized by the government as Classical Languages of India?
- Kannada
- Malayalam
- Bengali
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.
Incorrect
The Criteria adopted by the Government to determine the eligibility of a language for granting classical language status, are as under:
–High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years;
–A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations of speakers;
–The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech community;
–The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been given status of Classical languages of India.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following States in chronological order of their creation:
- Chhattisgarh
- Uttarakhand
- Jharkhand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals
Incorrect
Chhattisgarh, carved out of Madhya Pradesh came into being on 1 November 2000 as the 26th State of the Union.
In January 1950, the United Province was renamed as Uttar Pradesh and Uttaranchal remained a part of Uttar Pradesh before it was carved out of Uttar Pradesh on 9 November 2000. It is incepted as the 27th State of India.
Jharkhand which came into being on 15 November 2000 splitting from Bihar, as the 28th
State of the Union is the homeland of the tribals
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Constitution Day of India:
- It is celebrated to commemorate the coming into effect of the Constitution of India.
- The date of the Constitution Day is mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Constitution Day also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’ is celebrated in our country on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.
On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect from 26th January 1950.
Statement 2 is correct. Preamble states that “WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;
and to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation;
IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding “Regulating Act, 1833”:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him military powers and civil powers.
- The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Regulating Act, 1833 was the final step towards centralization in British India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
- It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations, while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Regulating Act, 1833 was the final step towards centralization in British India.
The features of this Act were as follows:
- It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor – General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for the first time, Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India.
- It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations, while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body. It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Constitution of India:
- There is no mention of ‘National Capital Territory’ in the constitution.
- The First Schedule provides names of the States and their capital cities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 239AA provides for special provisions with respect to Delhi which mentions that from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi is called the National Capital Territory of Delhi (further referred to as the National Capital Territory).
Statement 2 is incorrect. First Schedule of the Constitution provides: Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction as well as names of the Union Territories and their extent.
It does not mention capital cities of the states.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 239AA provides for special provisions with respect to Delhi which mentions that from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi is called the National Capital Territory of Delhi (further referred to as the National Capital Territory).
Statement 2 is incorrect. First Schedule of the Constitution provides: Names of the States and their territorial jurisdiction as well as names of the Union Territories and their extent.
It does not mention capital cities of the states.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following most correctly defines the Distributive Justice?
Correct
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has, its laws, institutions, policies, etc., result in different distributions of benefits and burdens across members of the society.
The structure of these frameworks is important because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them fundamentally affect people’s lives. Principles of distributive justice are therefore best thought of as providing moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in societies.
Distributive principles vary in numerous dimensions. They vary in what is considered relevant to distributive justice (income, wealth, opportunities, jobs, welfare, utility, etc.); in the nature of the recipients of the distribution (individual persons, groups of persons, reference classes, etc.); and on what basis the distribution should be made (equality, maximization, according to individual characteristics, according to free transactions, etc.).
Incorrect
The economic, political, and social frameworks that each society has, its laws, institutions, policies, etc., result in different distributions of benefits and burdens across members of the society.
The structure of these frameworks is important because the distributions of benefits and burdens resulting from them fundamentally affect people’s lives. Principles of distributive justice are therefore best thought of as providing moral guidance for the political processes and structures that affect the distribution of benefits and burdens in societies.
Distributive principles vary in numerous dimensions. They vary in what is considered relevant to distributive justice (income, wealth, opportunities, jobs, welfare, utility, etc.); in the nature of the recipients of the distribution (individual persons, groups of persons, reference classes, etc.); and on what basis the distribution should be made (equality, maximization, according to individual characteristics, according to free transactions, etc.).
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWho among the following declared Indian Constitution was “far too large and therefore far too rigid, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations”?
Correct
In 1951 the University of Madras invited Jennings to deliver a series of lectures on the just born Indian Constitution.
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, one of the chief architects of the Constitution, attended them and stayed through all his lectures which Jennings delivered in parts on three successive days.
Jennings began his address by summing up India’s Constitution in one cynical sentence: “Too long, too rigid, too prolix.” Over the course of three lectures, Jennings elaborated on his views
- He focused on some primary aspects: The Constitution’s rigidity and its superfluous provisions; fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy; and, finally, key aspects of India’s federalism.
Jennings finally handed down a largely unfavourable verdict. India’s Constitution, he declared, was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.
Incorrect
In 1951 the University of Madras invited Jennings to deliver a series of lectures on the just born Indian Constitution.
Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, one of the chief architects of the Constitution, attended them and stayed through all his lectures which Jennings delivered in parts on three successive days.
Jennings began his address by summing up India’s Constitution in one cynical sentence: “Too long, too rigid, too prolix.” Over the course of three lectures, Jennings elaborated on his views
- He focused on some primary aspects: The Constitution’s rigidity and its superfluous provisions; fundamental rights and directive principles of state policy; and, finally, key aspects of India’s federalism.
Jennings finally handed down a largely unfavourable verdict. India’s Constitution, he declared, was “far too large and therefore far too rigid”, too caged by its history, and too unwieldy to be moulded into something useful through judicious interpretations.
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language is NOT in the list of scheduled languages of eighth schedule of Indian Constitution?
Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Sindhi (added by 21st Amendment Act, 1967) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992), Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santal (added by 92nd Amendment 2003). The list had originally 14 languages only but subsequently through amendments 8 new languages were added.
Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Indian Constitution contains a list of 22 scheduled languages viz. Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu, Urdu, Sindhi (added by 21st Amendment Act, 1967) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali (added by 71st Amendment Act, 1992), Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santal (added by 92nd Amendment 2003). The list had originally 14 languages only but subsequently through amendments 8 new languages were added.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe “Part X” of the Indian Constitution is related to which of the following?
Correct
Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
Incorrect
Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution envisages a special system of administration for certain areas designated as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on the other hand, deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements about “National Register of Citizens (NRC)”:
1. NRC is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens.
2. At present, only Assam has such a register.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well
- Nagaland is already creating a similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants.
The Centre is planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.
The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
Incorrect
The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing names of all genuine Indian citizens. At present, only Assam has such a register.
The exercise may be extended to other states as well
- Nagaland is already creating a similar database known as the Register of Indigenous Inhabitants.
The Centre is planning to create a National Population Register (NPR), which will contain demographic and biometric details of citizens.
The NRC will be updated as per the provisions of The Citizenship Act, 1955 and The Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the federalism, which of the following are the features of federalism?
- There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
- Different tiers of government have its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
- The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
- The fundamental provisions of the constitution can be unilaterally changed by one level of government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Some of the key features of federalism:
There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity
Incorrect
Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.
Some of the key features of federalism:
There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own JURISDICTION in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.
The federal system thus has dual objectives: to safeguard and promote unity of the country, while at the same time accommodate regional diversity
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Charter Act of 1833”:
- It made the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal.
- The laws made under previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
- It ended the monopoly of East India Company however company’s monopoly in trade with china kept intact.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
Features of the Act:
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.
However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Incorrect
Features of the Act:
It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.
Thus, the act created, for the first time, a Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
Lord William Bentick was the first governor-general of India.
It deprived the governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India.
The laws made under the previous acts were called as Regulations while laws made under this act were called as Acts.
It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.
It provided that the company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’.
The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants, and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company.
However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.
Basics of Constitution Part-2
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- Question 1 of 16
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following are the features of the “parliamentary government”?
1. Presence of Nominal and Real executives
2. Majority party rule
3. Membership of ministers in the legislature
4. Dissolution of upper house
Which of the statements given above are correct?Correct
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government.
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly).Incorrect
The parliamentary system is also known as the ‘Westminster’ model of government, responsible government and cabinet government.
The Constitution establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
The features of parliamentary government in India are:
• Presence of nominal and real executives
• Majority party rule
• Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature
• Membership of the ministers in the legislature
• Leadership of the prime minister or the chief minister,
• Dissolution of the lower House (Lok Sabha or Assembly). - Question 2 of 16
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following provisions of the constitution is/are related to “secular state of India”?
1. The term secular was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978.
2. The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship
3. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
• The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
• The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
• Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
• Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
• No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27).Incorrect
The Constitution of India stands for a secular state. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
• The term ‘secular’ was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship.
• The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
• The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15).
• Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).
• All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate any religion (Article 25).
• Every religious denomination or any of its section shall have the right to manage its religious affairs (Article 26).
• No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion of a particular religion (Article 27). - Question 3 of 16
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Chief Minister”:
1. The Constitution contains specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
2. Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?Correct
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
• However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
• In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister.Incorrect
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Chief Minister.
• Article 164 only says that the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the governor.
• However, this does not imply that the governor is free to appoint any one as the Chief Minister.
• In accordance with the convections of the parliamentary system of government, the governor has to appoint the leader of the majority party in the state legislative assembly as the Chief Minister. - Question 4 of 16
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe Abdul Kuddus v Union of India 2019 case, sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
On May 17, 2019 in a very short hearing, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court (the Chief Justie of India Ranjan Gogoi and Justices Deepak Gupta and Sanjiv Khanna) decided a batch of 15 petitions under the title Abdul Kuddus v Union of India.
The case involved the status of an “opinion” rendered by a Foreigners Tribunal, as to the citizenship (or the lack thereof) of any individual. The issue arose because, in the State of Assam, there are two ongoing processes concerning the question of citizenship.
• The first includes proceedings before the Foreigners Tribunals, which have been established under an executive order of the Central government.
• The second is the NRC, a process overseen and driven by the Supreme Court. While nominally independent, both processes nonetheless bleed into each other, and have thus caused significant chaos and confusion for individuals who have found themselves on the wrong side of one or both.In short, the petitioners’ case was that the two processes — that of the Foreigners Tribunal and of the NRC — should be kept entirely
Incorrect
On May 17, 2019 in a very short hearing, a three-judge Bench of the Supreme Court (the Chief Justie of India Ranjan Gogoi and Justices Deepak Gupta and Sanjiv Khanna) decided a batch of 15 petitions under the title Abdul Kuddus v Union of India.
The case involved the status of an “opinion” rendered by a Foreigners Tribunal, as to the citizenship (or the lack thereof) of any individual. The issue arose because, in the State of Assam, there are two ongoing processes concerning the question of citizenship.
• The first includes proceedings before the Foreigners Tribunals, which have been established under an executive order of the Central government.
• The second is the NRC, a process overseen and driven by the Supreme Court. While nominally independent, both processes nonetheless bleed into each other, and have thus caused significant chaos and confusion for individuals who have found themselves on the wrong side of one or both.In short, the petitioners’ case was that the two processes — that of the Foreigners Tribunal and of the NRC — should be kept entirely
- Question 5 of 16
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAccording to Article 348 (1) of Indian Constitution, which of the following area (s) is/are English language officially used?
1. Supreme Court
2. High Court
3. Drafting bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The higher judiciary appeared to be the sole exception to this English-to-Hindi journey as Article 348(1) stipulates the use of English in the Supreme Court and High Courts as well as for drafting Bills, Acts and Orders.
But Article 348(2) read with Section (7) of the Official Languages Act 1963 provides for Hindi or other official languages to be used in High Courts “in addition to English”.Incorrect
The higher judiciary appeared to be the sole exception to this English-to-Hindi journey as Article 348(1) stipulates the use of English in the Supreme Court and High Courts as well as for drafting Bills, Acts and Orders.
But Article 348(2) read with Section (7) of the Official Languages Act 1963 provides for Hindi or other official languages to be used in High Courts “in addition to English”. - Question 6 of 16
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following “Article/Articles of Indian Constitution” has dealt with the
provisions regarding international treaties?
1. Article 51
2. Article 73
3. Article 253
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution of India has dealt with the provisions regarding
international treaties through Articles 51, 73 and 253.
Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to
•promote international peace and security;
•maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
•foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of
organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration
Article 73: provides that the scope of the powers of the executive extend to:
•To the matters specified in the List 1, inclusive of entry 14, with respect to entering
into and implementing treaties.
•Such rights or obligations as are exercisable in consequence of any treaty or
convention which India has ratified.
Article 253: Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding
anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law
for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international
conference, association or other body.Incorrect
The Constitution of India has dealt with the provisions regarding
international treaties through Articles 51, 73 and 253.
Article 51: Promotion of international peace and security The State shall endeavour to
•promote international peace and security;
•maintain just and honourable relations between nations;
•foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of
organised peoples with one another; and encourage settlement of international
disputes by arbitration
Article 73: provides that the scope of the powers of the executive extend to:
•To the matters specified in the List 1, inclusive of entry 14, with respect to entering
into and implementing treaties.
•Such rights or obligations as are exercisable in consequence of any treaty or
convention which India has ratified.
Article 253: Legislation for giving effect to international agreements notwithstanding
anything in the foregoing provisions of this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law
for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or
convention with any other country or countries or any decision made at any international
conference, association or other body. - Question 7 of 16
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following statements is/are correct regarding Oath or Affirmation by
the President?
1. President swears to faithfully execute the office.
2. President swears to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law.
3. President Swears to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Oath or Affirmation by the President.
Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:
•to faithfully execute the office;
•to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
•to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.Incorrect
Oath or Affirmation by the President.
Before entering upon his office, the President has to make and subscribe to an oath or
affirmation. In his oath, the President swears:
•to faithfully execute the office;
•to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law; and
•to devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India. - Question 8 of 16
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha (Council of State):
1. The Indian Councils Act, 1909 provided for the creation of a Council of State as a second
chamber.
2. The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the States and
Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Rajya Sabha.
•The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford
Report of 1918.
•The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of
State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which
actually came into existence in 1921.
•The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the
States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
•The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State.Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha.
•The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague-Chelmsford
Report of 1918.
•The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of
State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which
actually came into existence in 1921.
•The Fourth Schedule to the Constitution provides for allocation of seats to the
States and Union Territories in Rajya Sabha.
•The allocation of seats is made on the basis of the population of each State. - Question 9 of 16
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following are guidelines for declaring a language as Classical
Language?
1. High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
2. A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
3. The literary tradition can be original and borrowed from another speech community.
4. The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya
Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
•High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000
years;
•A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers;
•The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech
community;
•The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also
be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit
(2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014).Incorrect
According to information provided by the Ministry of Culture in the Rajya
Sabha in February 2014, the guidelines for declaring a language as ‘Classical’ are:
•High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000
years;
•A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by
generations of speakers;
•The literary tradition be original and not borrowed from another speech
community;
•The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also
be a discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Currently, six languages enjoy the ‘Classical’ status: Tamil (declared in 2004), Sanskrit
(2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), and Odia (2014). - Question 10 of 16
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following cases is/are related to Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
1. Berubari Union case (1960).
2. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973).
3. LIC of India vs Consumer Education and Research Centre (1995).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
One of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of
the Constitution or not.
•In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble
shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is
thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
•Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than
one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives
enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
•In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the
Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
•In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the
Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.Incorrect
One of the controversies about the Preamble is as to whether it is a part of
the Constitution or not.
•In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Supreme Court said that the Preamble
shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution, and is
thus a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
•Further, where the terms used in any article are ambiguous or capable of more than
one meaning, some assistance at interpretation may be taken from the objectives
enshrined in the Preamble. Despite this recognition of the significance of the
Preamble, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is not a part of the
Constitution.
•In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier
opinion and held that Preamble is a part of the Constitution. It observed that the
Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and
interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.
•In the LIC of India case (1995) also, the Supreme Court again held that the
Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. - Question 11 of 16
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: Polity“The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission”.
Which of the following is/are features of the Cabinet Mission?
1. Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats proportional
to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:1,00,000.
2. The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
3. Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of First Past the Post System.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Formally, the Constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly which had
been elected for undivided India. It held its first sitting on 9 December1946 and
reassembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 August 1947.
Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act,
1935.
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission.
According to this plan:
•Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000.
As a result the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292
members while the Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
•The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
•Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of proportional representation with single
transferable vote.
•The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be
determined by consultation.Incorrect
Formally, the Constitution was made by the Constituent Assembly which had
been elected for undivided India. It held its first sitting on 9 December1946 and
reassembled as Constituent Assembly for divided India on 14 August 1947.
Its members were chosen by indirect election by the members of the Provincial
Legislative Assemblies that had been established under the Government of India Act,
1935.
The Constituent Assembly was composed roughly along the lines suggested by the
plan proposed by the committee of the British cabinet, known as the Cabinet Mission.
According to this plan:
•Each Province and each Princely State or group of States were allotted seats
proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:10,00,000.
As a result the Provinces (that were under direct British rule) were to elect 292
members while the Princely States were allotted a minimum of 93 seats.
•The seats in each Province were distributed among the three main communities,
Muslims, Sikhs and general, in proportion to their respective populations.
•Members of each community in the Provincial Legislative Assembly elected their own
representatives by the method of proportional representation with single
transferable vote.
•The method of selection in the case of representatives of Princely States was to be
determined by consultation. - Question 12 of 16
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Quorum:
1. It is the minimum number of members to be present at the sitting of house for valid
transaction of its business.
2. It is one-tenth of the total number of members in each house excluding presiding officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Article 100 of the Constitution of India stipulates that at least 10% of
total number of members of the House must be present to constitute the quorum to
constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament.
•It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25
members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted.
•Quorum also includes the presiding officer of the particular house (Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha).
•If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding
officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum.Incorrect
Article 100 of the Constitution of India stipulates that at least 10% of
total number of members of the House must be present to constitute the quorum to
constitute a meeting of either House of Parliament.
•It means that there must be at least 55 members present in the Lok Sabha and 25
members present in the Rajya Sabha, if any business is to be conducted.
•Quorum also includes the presiding officer of the particular house (Lok Sabha or
Rajya Sabha).
•If there is no quorum during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of the presiding
officer either to adjourn the House or to suspend the meeting until there is a quorum. - Question 13 of 16
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) is/are not listed in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution?
1. Kashmiri
2. Nepali
3. Rajasthani
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22
languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8)
Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit,
(15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22)
Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was
added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were
included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004Incorrect
The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of the following 22
languages:
(1) Assamese, (2) Bengali, (3) Gujarati, (4) Hindi, (5) Kannada, (6) Kashmiri, (7) Konkani, (8)
Malayalam, (9) Manipuri, (10) Marathi, (11) Nepali, (12) Oriya, (13) Punjabi, (14) Sanskrit,
(15) Sindhi, (16) Tamil, (17) Telugu, (18) Urdu (19) Bodo, (20) Santhali, (21) Maithili and (22)
Dogri.
Of these languages, 14 were initially included in the Constitution. Sindhi language was
added in 1967. Thereafter three more languages viz., Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were
included in 1992. Subsequently Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali were added in 2004 - Question 14 of 16
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Presidential versus Parliamentary
systems of government:
1. Unlike the Presidential system, the chief executive’s term of office is directly linked with
that of the legislature in parliamentary systems.
2. The chief executive is chosen by members of legislature amongst themselves in
presidential system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term
of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the
terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to
legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive
as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from
the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although
their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. In parliamentary systems, the chief executive’s term
of office is directly linked with that of the legislature, while in presidential systems the
terms are not linked.
-The executive is selected by the assembly and the executive remains in office subject to
legislative confidence.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In a presidential system, the President, who is the chief executive
as well as the symbolic head of government, is chosen by a separate election and not from
the Legislature.
-Ministers/Secretaries usually are not simultaneously members of the legislature, although
their appointment may require the advice and consent of the legislative branch. - Question 15 of 16
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following language(s) have the status of ‘Classical Language’ in India?
1. Sanskrit
2. Kannada
3. Hindi
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in
India till now: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam
(2013), and Odia (2014).
Criteria for conferring the status of Classical Language:
-High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
-A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
-The literary tradition to be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
-The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Till date, Hindi has not been granted the Classical Language status.Incorrect
Six languages have been conferred the status of ‘Classical Language’ in
India till now: Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam
(2013), and Odia (2014).
Criteria for conferring the status of Classical Language:
-High antiquity of its early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
-A body of ancient literature/texts, which is considered a valuable heritage by generations
of speakers.
-The literary tradition to be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
-The classical language and literature being distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its later forms or its offshoots.
Till date, Hindi has not been granted the Classical Language status. - Question 16 of 16
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following are the indicators of Democracy Index 2019?
1. Electoral Pluralism
2. Democratic decentralization
3. Political culture
4. Fundamental Rights
5. Government functioning
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The latest edition of the Democracy Index spells gloom for India. The world’s biggest democracy slipped 10 places in the 2019 global ranking to 51st place.
The report published by The Economist Intelligence Unit — the research and analysis division of The Economist Group, which is the sister company to The Economist newspaper — records how global democracy fared, analyzing 165 independent states and two territories.
India was graded in electoral process and pluralism (8.67), government functioning (6.79), political participation (6.67), political culture (5.63) and civil liberties (6.76).
Incorrect
The latest edition of the Democracy Index spells gloom for India. The world’s biggest democracy slipped 10 places in the 2019 global ranking to 51st place.
The report published by The Economist Intelligence Unit — the research and analysis division of The Economist Group, which is the sister company to The Economist newspaper — records how global democracy fared, analyzing 165 independent states and two territories.
India was graded in electoral process and pluralism (8.67), government functioning (6.79), political participation (6.67), political culture (5.63) and civil liberties (6.76).
Rights, Duties, and Principles-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66

Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66

Rights, Duties, and Principles-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935?
Correct
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
- In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
- What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
- The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
- In the words of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
- What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
- The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions of Indian Constitution embody the concept of a welfare state?
Correct
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
- They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
- They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
- In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme for a modern democratic State.
- They aim at realizing the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution.
- They embody the concept of a ‘welfare state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
- In brief, they seek to establish economic and social democracy in the country.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Article of Indian Constitution says that directive principles are fundamental in the governance of the country?
Correct
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 points“To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government” – is described in which of the following Article?
Correct
To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
To organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-government (Article 40).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following provisions are covered under Article 39 of Directive Principles of State policy?
- The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good.
- Opportunities for healthy development of children.
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
To secure
- the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
- the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
- prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
- equal pay for equal work for men and women;
- preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
- Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
NOTE: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
To secure
- the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
- the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
- prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
- equal pay for equal work for men and women;
- preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
- Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
NOTE: To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich amendment act was added the directive principle of cooperative societies?
Correct
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies.
It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The 97th Amendment Act of 2011 added a new Directive Principle relating to cooperative societies.
It requires the state to promote voluntary formation, autonomous functioning, democratic control and professional management of co-operative societies (Article 43B).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following directive principles is/are added under 42nd constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?
- To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor.
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
- To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following committee fundamental duties in Indian constitution set up by the government to make recommendations about fundamental duties?
Correct
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In 1976, the Congress Party set up the Sardar Swaran Singh Committee to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the need and necessity of which was felt during the operation of the internal emergency (1975–1977).
The committee recommended the inclusion of a separate chapter on fundamental duties in the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 points“Article 51A” of Indian Constitution is associated with?
Correct
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
- This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
- This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Congress Government at Centre accepted these recommendations and enacted the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.
- This amendment added a new part, namely, Part IVA to the Constitution.
- This new part consists of only one Article, that is, Article 51A which for the first time specified a code of ten fundamental duties of the citizens.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsArrange the following acts in chronological order?
- The Minimum Wages Act
- The Payment of Wages Act
- The Payment of Bonus Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965), the Contract Labour Regulation and Abolition Act (1970), the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986), the Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976), the Trade Unions Act (1926), the Factories Act (1948), the Mines Act (1952), the Industrial Disputes Act (1947), the Workmen’s Compensation Act (1923) and soon have been enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections. In 2006, the government banned the child labour.
In 2016, the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986) was renamed as the Child and Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act, 1986.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965), the Contract Labour Regulation and Abolition Act (1970), the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986), the Bonded Labour System Abolition Act (1976), the Trade Unions Act (1926), the Factories Act (1948), the Mines Act (1952), the Industrial Disputes Act (1947), the Workmen’s Compensation Act (1923) and soon have been enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections. In 2006, the government banned the child labour.
In 2016, the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act (1986) was renamed as the Child and Adolescent Labour Prohibition and Regulation Act, 1986.
Source: Laxmikanth.
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1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The original constitution consists of seven fundamental rights.
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the constitution to citizens without any discrimination.
- The framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of Britain to incorporate fundamental rights in the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
- In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (i.e., Bill of Rights).
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.
- They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest and unity of the nation.
- Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 12 to 35.
- In this regard, the framers of the Constitution derived inspiration from the Constitution of USA (i.e., Bill of Rights).
- The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination.
- They uphold the equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest and unity of the nation.
- Originally, the Constitution provided for seven Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding right to property:
- It was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951.
- It is made a legal right under Article 276-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
- It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
- So, at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The right to property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978.
- It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
- So, at present, there are only six Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is/are the features of Fundamental Rights?
- All fundamental rights are positive in nature.
- They are not absolute but qualified in nature.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterized by the following:
- Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
- They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
- Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them are also available against the action of private individuals.
- Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterized by the following:
- Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or legal persons like corporations or companies.
- They are not absolute but qualified. The state can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However, whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts.
- Thus, they strike a balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual liberty and social control.
- All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them are also available against the action of private individuals.
- Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following statement is NOT correct about Fundamental Rights?
Correct
Fundamental Rights are justifiable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
- They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
- They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
- They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Fundamental Rights are justifiable, allowing persons to move the courts for their enforcement, if and when they are violated.
- They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go to the Supreme Court, not necessarily by way of appeal against the judgment of the high courts.
- They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional amendment act and not by an ordinary act. Moreover, this can be done without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
- They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsArticle 12 has defined the term “State” for the purposes of Part III. Which of the following is/are come under the definition of State?
- Executive and Legislative organs of Union and State government.
- Improvement trusts.
- Non – statutory authorities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
- Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
- Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
- All local authorities, which is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
- All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
- Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning the fundamental rights. Hence, Article 12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
- Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union government.
- Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state government.
- All local authorities, which is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
- All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.
- Thus, State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following is NOT part of Right to equality?
Correct
Right to equality (Articles 14–18):
- Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- Abolition of un-touchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).
- Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).
NOTE: Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is covers under Right to Freedom.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Right to equality (Articles 14–18):
- Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).
- Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).
- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
- Abolition of un-touchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).
- Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).
NOTE: Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business is covers under Right to Freedom.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following Fundamental Right is NOT available to Foreigners?
Correct
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 points“No member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof” – describes in which of the following Article of Indian Constitution?
Correct
No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105).
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
No Member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof (Article 105).
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsThe famous Menaka Gandhi case of 1978 was associated with which of the following Article of Indian constitution?
Correct
In Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21.
- Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
- In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
- In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
In Menaka case (1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Gopalan case by taking a wider interpretation of the Article 21.
- Therefore, it ruled that the right to life and personal liberty of a person can be deprived by a law provided the procedure prescribed by that law is reasonable, fair and just.
- In other words, it has introduced the American expression ‘due process of law’.
- In effect, the protection under Article 21 should be available not only against arbitrary executive action but also against arbitrary legislative action.
Source: Laxmikanth.
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsWhich constitutional amendment act added the provision of “State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine”?
Correct
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
- Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
- This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Incorrect
Article 21 A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such a manner as the State may determine.
- Thus, this provision makes only elementary education a Fundamental Right and not higher or professional education.
- This provision was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002.
Source: Laxmikanth.
Rights, Duties, and Principles– 2020 and Before that
Rights, duties and Principles
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
1. Public order
2. Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.Incorrect
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution?
1.Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
2.State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
3.State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44] - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
1. Contempt of court
2. Defamation
3. Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
- Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArticle 15 of the Constitution enables the State for making special provisions for which of the following category of citizens?
1. Women and Children
2. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
3. Economically Weaker Sections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.Incorrect
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Men and women to equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
2. The State shall provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice arenot denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the article 226 of the Constitution?
1. The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued by a High Court.
2. High Courts are not competent to issue writs on violation of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes fall under the Concurrent List of Constitution.
2.The right to form associations or unions is a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)] - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following fundamental right(s) is/are guaranteed by the Constitution?
1. Right to practice and propagate religion
2. Right to convert religion of people
3. Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law. - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
- Public order
- Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
Incorrect
Article 19(1)(b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely for protests.
- Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the Constitution?
- Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
- State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health.
- State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]
Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]
- Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
- Contempt of court
- Defamation
- Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on ‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
- Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArticle 15 of the Constitution enables the State for making special provisions for which of the following category of citizens?
- Women and Children
- Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
- Economically Weaker Sections
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Incorrect
Article 15 of the Constitution provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Article 15(3): Nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Article 15(4): Nothing in this article or in clause (2) of article 29 shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Article 15(6) (a): Nothing in this article shall prevent state from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
- Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- Men and women to equally have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
- The State shall provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice arenot denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 39(a) states that the State shall, in particular, direct its policy towards securing that the citizens, men and women equally, have the right to an adequate means of livelihood.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 39A states that the State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
- Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the article 226 of the Constitution?
- The writ of habeas corpus cannot be issued by a High Court.
- High Courts are not competent to issue writs on violation of fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect.
As per article 226(1) of the Constitution every High Court shall have power, throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction, to issue to any person or authority, including in appropriate cases, any Government, within those territories directions, orders or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari, or any of them, for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by Part III and for any other purpose.
- Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
- Trade unions, industrial and labour disputes fall under the Concurrent List of Constitution.
- The right to form associations or unions is a fundamental right.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Under the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List where both the Central & State Governments are competent to enact legislation subject to certain matters being reserved for the Centre. Trade Unions; industrial and labour disputes are listed as Entry 22 in Concurrent List.
Statement 2 is correct. All citizens have the fundamental right to form associations or unions or co-operative societies. [Article 19(c)]
- Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following fundamental right(s) is/are guaranteed by the Constitution?
- Right to practice and propagate religion
- Right to convert religion of people
- Right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.
Incorrect
Option 1 is correct. Article 25(1) states that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion.
Option 2 is incorrect. In the case of Stanislaus vs State of Madhya Pradesh (1977), the court made a clear distinction between the right to propagate one’s religion or faith and the right to convert. Court ruled that former is guaranteed by Article 25 of Constitution. Conversion enjoys no such protection.
Option 3 is correct. Article 26 states that subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
–to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
–to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
–to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
–to administer such property in accordance with law.
- Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are correct regarding the provisions of Preventive Detention under the Constitution of India?
- Every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest.
- The Advisory Board for allowing detention of a person longer than three months must be headed by a Judge of Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 22 (2) every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest. However, Article 22 (3) provides exception in case of preventive detention detainees and enemy aliens from the said clause.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the article 22(4), no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:
-an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention;
-or such person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Under Article 22 (2) every arrested person must be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours after arrest. However, Article 22 (3) provides exception in case of preventive detention detainees and enemy aliens from the said clause.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per the article 22(4), no law providing for preventive detention shall authorize the detention of a person for a longer period than three months unless:
-an Advisory Board consisting of persons who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as, Judges of a High Court has reported before the expiration of the said period of three months that there is in its opinion sufficient cause for such detention;
-or such person is detained in accordance with the provisions of any law made by Parliament.
- Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following exception(s) to the right to equality is/are provided under the Constitution of India?
- Special provisions for women and children.
- Special provisions for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens.
- Special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
All of the above are provided for in the Constitution of India.
Article 15 provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Further article the clause 15(3) sates that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Clause 15(4) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Clause 15(6)(a) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
Incorrect
All of the above are provided for in the Constitution of India.
Article 15 provides for prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
Further article the clause 15(3) sates that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for women and children.
Clause 15(4) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Clause 15(6)(a) states that nothing in this article shall prevent the State from making any special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens.
- Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion under the Constitution of India:
- The freedom is guaranteed to all persons subject to maintenance of public order, morality and health.
- State is empowered to regulate any economic, financial, political or other secular activity associated with religious practice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are correct.
Article 25, providing for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, under clause 25(1) states that ‘subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion’.
Similar exception is provided under article 26 regarding freedom to manage religious affairs.
Sub-clause 25(2)(a) provide for power of the state for making any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
Article 25, providing for the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, under clause 25(1) states that ‘subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion’.
Similar exception is provided under article 26 regarding freedom to manage religious affairs.
Sub-clause 25(2)(a) provide for power of the state for making any law regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice.
- Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Right to Freedom of Religion under the Constitution of India:
- Government is empowered to provide for opening of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
- Every religious denomination has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) provides for State’s power with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion. It empowers State to make any law—
-regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
– providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 26 of the Constitution provides that ‘subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
-to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
-to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
-to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
-to administer such property in accordance with law
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(2) provides for State’s power with regard to Right to Freedom of Religion. It empowers State to make any law—
-regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
– providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 26 of the Constitution provides that ‘subject to public order, morality and health, every religious denomination or any section thereof shall have the right—
-to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes;
-to manage its own affairs in matters of religion;
-to own and acquire movable and immovable property; and
-to administer such property in accordance with law
- Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding provisions of reservation in India:
- Social reservations in favour of scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes under Article 16(4) are horizontal reservations.
- Special reservations in favour of women under Articles 15(3) are vertical reservations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Both statements are incorrect. The definitions of vertical and horizontal reservations have been interchanged in the above statements.
In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992 case, the principle of reservations in India was explained.
There are two types of reservations, which are often referred to as vertical reservations and horizontal reservations. The reservations in favour of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes [under Article 16(4)] may be called vertical reservations whereas reservations in favour of physically handicapped [under Article 16(1)] and women [under Article 15(3)] can be referred to as horizontal reservations.
Horizontal reservations cut across the vertical reservations, what is called interlocking reservations.
# Suppose 3% of the vacancies are reserved in favour of physically handicapped persons; the persons selected against this quota will be placed in the appropriate category; if she belongs to SC category he will be placed in that quota by making necessary adjustments; similarly, if she belongs to open competition (OC) category, she will be placed in that category by making necessary adjustments.
# Even after providing for these horizontal reservations, the percentage of reservations in favour of Backward Class of citizens remains and should remain the same.
Incorrect
Both statements are incorrect. The definitions of vertical and horizontal reservations have been interchanged in the above statements.
In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India 1992 case, the principle of reservations in India was explained.
There are two types of reservations, which are often referred to as vertical reservations and horizontal reservations. The reservations in favour of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes [under Article 16(4)] may be called vertical reservations whereas reservations in favour of physically handicapped [under Article 16(1)] and women [under Article 15(3)] can be referred to as horizontal reservations.
Horizontal reservations cut across the vertical reservations, what is called interlocking reservations.
# Suppose 3% of the vacancies are reserved in favour of physically handicapped persons; the persons selected against this quota will be placed in the appropriate category; if she belongs to SC category he will be placed in that quota by making necessary adjustments; similarly, if she belongs to open competition (OC) category, she will be placed in that category by making necessary adjustments.
# Even after providing for these horizontal reservations, the percentage of reservations in favour of Backward Class of citizens remains and should remain the same.
- Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the “Fundamental Duties”:
1. Fundamental Duties were added to constitution by 42nd constitutional amendment.
2. Under 42nd constitutional amendment total eleven duties were added to constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable; the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties
- In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution.
However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
Incorrect
The rights and duties of the citizens are correlative and inseparable; the original constitution contained only the fundamental rights and not the fundamental duties
- In other words, the framers of the Constitution did not feel it necessary to incorporate the fundamental duties of the citizens in the Constitution.
However, they incorporated the duties of the State in the Constitution in the form of Directive Principles of State Polity.
42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10 Fundamental Duties to the Indian Constitution.
Swaran Singh Committee in 1976 recommended Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency of 1975-77.
86th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th Fundamental Duty to the list.
- Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following feature of Indian constitution is called as “Instrument of Instructions”?
Correct
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
Incorrect
The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, ‘the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of India Act of 1935.
What is called Directive Principles is merely another name for the instrument of instructions.
The only difference is that they are instructions to the legislature and the executive’.
- Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following Article (s) of Indian Constitution is/are deals with the reservation in services/posts?
- Article 16
- Article 46
- Article 335
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The relevant Articles of the Constitution which govern the entire reservation set up are the following:
Article 16(4): Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Article 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
Article 335: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
Incorrect
The relevant Articles of the Constitution which govern the entire reservation set up are the following:
Article 16(4): Nothing in this Article shall prevent the State from making any provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.
Article 46: The State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and, in particular, of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes, and shall protect them from social injustice and all forms of exploitation.
Article 335: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.
- Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are Socialistic Principles of Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)?
- State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.
- State shall strive to secure equal justice and free legal aid.
- State shall endeavour to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.
Socialistic principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. They direct the state:
- To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
- To secure
The right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
Equal pay for equal work for men and women;
Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
- To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
- To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).
NOTE: Article 48 – The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle – represent both Gandhian and liberal–intellectual principles.
Incorrect
The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal–intellectual.
Socialistic principles reflect the ideology of socialism. They lay down the framework of a democratic socialist state, aim at providing social and economic justice, and set the path towards welfare state. They direct the state:
- To promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order permeated by justice—social, economic and political—and to minimize inequalities in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).
- To secure
The right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens;
The equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good;
Prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production;
Equal pay for equal work for men and women;
Preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse; and
Opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
- To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
- To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
- To make provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief (Article 42).
- To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural opportunities for all workers (Article 43).
- To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43 A).
- To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve public health (Article 47).
NOTE: Article 48 – The State shall endeavour to organise agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines and shall, in particular, take steps for preserving and improving the breeds, and prohibiting the slaughter, of cows and calves and other milch and draught cattle – represent both Gandhian and liberal–intellectual principles.
Rights, duties and Principles Part--2
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- Question 1 of 9
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityThe term “Principle of Jus Cogens” is recently in news is related to which of the following?
Correct
The opposition party in December, 2019 claimed that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act not only “violates” provisions of the Constitution but also falls afoul of an international convention to which India is a signatory.
• India was a signatory to the international convention on torture that talks about “providing shelter to people who face torture in another country”.
• “India is bound by the principle of jus cogens that ensures human rights to those who are tortured and persecuted”.Incorrect
The opposition party in December, 2019 claimed that the Citizenship (Amendment) Act not only “violates” provisions of the Constitution but also falls afoul of an international convention to which India is a signatory.
• India was a signatory to the international convention on torture that talks about “providing shelter to people who face torture in another country”.
• “India is bound by the principle of jus cogens that ensures human rights to those who are tortured and persecuted”. - Question 2 of 9
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityUnder which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court
has recognized the right to information as a fundamental right of citizens?
1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The country’s law on our right to information was enacted in 2005.
•However, since 1975, in multiple judgments, the Supreme Court has recognized the
right to information as a fundamental right of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) of the
Constitution on our freedom of speech and expression.
•This has been read together with Articles 14, 19 and 21 to guarantee our right to
equality, right to freedom of speech and expression, and our right to life and liberty,
respectively.
•It was those judgments, together with the RTI movements by citizens, which
culminated in the RTI Act of 2005.
•This was an Act of Parliament that set forth a practical regime and framework to
grant citizens this right and replaced the erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002.Incorrect
The country’s law on our right to information was enacted in 2005.
•However, since 1975, in multiple judgments, the Supreme Court has recognized the
right to information as a fundamental right of citizens under Article 19(1)(a) of the
Constitution on our freedom of speech and expression.
•This has been read together with Articles 14, 19 and 21 to guarantee our right to
equality, right to freedom of speech and expression, and our right to life and liberty,
respectively.
•It was those judgments, together with the RTI movements by citizens, which
culminated in the RTI Act of 2005.
•This was an Act of Parliament that set forth a practical regime and framework to
grant citizens this right and replaced the erstwhile Freedom of Information Act, 2002. - Question 3 of 9
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are listed as Directive Principle of State Policy under the
Constitution?
1. Early childhood care and education to children below the age of six years
2. State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public
health.
3. State to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which
though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of
the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil
code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44]Incorrect
The Constitution lays down certain Directive Principles of State Policy, which
though not justiciable, are ‘fundamental in governance of the country’, and it is the duty of
the State to apply these principles in making laws.
Option 1 is correct. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and
education for all children until they complete the age of six years. [Article 45]
Option 2 is correct. The State shall regard the raising of the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of its people and the improvement of public health as among its primary duties and, in particular, the State shall endeavour to bring about prohibition of the
consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are
injurious to health. [Article 47]
Option 3 is correct. The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil
code throughout the territory of India. [Article 44] - Question 4 of 9
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityAs per the Constitution, which of the following is/are basis for reasonable
restrictions on the right to assemble peaceably and without arms?
1. Public order
2. Sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(1) (b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and
without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any
law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and
without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely
for protests.Incorrect
Article 19(1) (b) provides for fundamental right to assemble peacefully and
without arms.
Further, Article 19(3) of the Constitution provides for power of the State to provide for any
law imposing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and
without arms in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order.
# Supreme Court has recently stated that that public places cannot be occupied indefinitely
for protests. - Question 5 of 9
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1. Constitution of India provides for fundamental right of an accused against forced selfincrimination.
2. India has incorporated the relevant provisions against torture in its criminal laws after
ratifying the UN Convention against Torture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides fundamental right against the forced self-incrimination by the accused under article 20(3) which states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India signed the United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment in 1997 but has not ratified it so far.
21st Law Commission under Justice B.S. Chauhan (retd.) recommended on implementation of convention by legislation. It proposed amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In addition, the Commission submitted a draft Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017 which defines acts that should constitute torture and prescribed punishments for such acts.
Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution provides fundamental right against the forced self-incrimination by the accused under article 20(3) which states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Statement 2 is incorrect. India signed the United Nations Convention against Torture and other Cruel, Inhuman and Degrading Treatment or Punishment in 1997 but has not ratified it so far.
21st Law Commission under Justice B.S. Chauhan (retd.) recommended on implementation of convention by legislation. It proposed amendments to the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. In addition, the Commission submitted a draft Prevention of Torture Bill, 2017 which defines acts that should constitute torture and prescribed punishments for such acts.
- Question 6 of 9
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are basis for ‘reasonable restrictions’ on fundamental
right to freedom of speech and expression under the Constitution?
1. Contempt of court
2. Defamation
3. Decency or morality
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on
‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or
morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for power of state to put reasonable restrictions on
‘freedom of speech and expression’ in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India,
the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or
morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence. - Question 7 of 9
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following is/are provided under Constitution as ground(s) for
reasonable restrictions on freedom of speech and expression?
1. Public order
2. Friendly relations with foreign States
3. Protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Article 19(2) provides for State’s power to make law imposes reasonable
restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt
of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
The ‘protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe’ is provided under the
Constitution as basis of reasonable restriction on freedom to move freely throughout the
territory of India and to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India.Incorrect
Article 19(2) provides for State’s power to make law imposes reasonable
restrictions on the exercise of the right to freedom of speech and expression in the
interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly
relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt
of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
The ‘protection of the interests of any Scheduled Tribe’ is provided under the
Constitution as basis of reasonable restriction on freedom to move freely throughout the
territory of India and to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India. - Question 8 of 9
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Right to Freedom of Religion:
1.All persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
2.State can make law for throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(1) provides that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 25(2) states that nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law—
–regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
— providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Article 25(1) provides that subject to public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of this Part, all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practise and propagate religion.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 25(2) states that nothing in this article shall affect the operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any law—
–regulating or restricting any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice;
— providing for social welfare and reform or the throwing open of Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all classes and sections of Hindus.
The reference to Hindus is construed as including a reference to persons professing the Sikh, Jaina or Buddhist religion. - Question 9 of 9
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements:
1.Right to protest is explicitly guaranteed as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India.
2.State can make laws providing reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the fundamental right to assemble peacefully in interest of public order.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to protest in not explicitly mentioned under the constitution. It is derived from the right to free speech and expression [19(1) (a)]; and right to assemble peacefully without arms [19(1) (b)].
Statement 2 is correct. Article 19 (3) provides that State can make any law imposing, in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order, reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The right to protest in not explicitly mentioned under the constitution. It is derived from the right to free speech and expression [19(1) (a)]; and right to assemble peacefully without arms [19(1) (b)].
Statement 2 is correct. Article 19 (3) provides that State can make any law imposing, in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India or public order, reasonable restrictions on the exercise of the right to assemble peaceably and without arms.
Legislature-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66

Legislature-2021
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- Question 1 of 10
1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The process of summoning the Parliament has clearly mentioned in the Constitution.
- According to rules of business of Parliament, India has a fixed Parliamentary calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Like many other articles, it is based on the provision of Government of India Act, 1935.
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e., not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- The longest, Budget Session (1st session) starts towards the end of January and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
- The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals.
- The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
- Winter Session (3rd session) is held from November to December.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article 85 of the Constitution. Like many other articles, it is based on the provision of Government of India Act, 1935.
- India does not have a fixed parliamentary calendar. By convention (i.e., not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year.
- The longest, Budget Session (1st session) starts towards the end of January and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.
- The session has a recess so that Parliamentary Committees can discuss the budgetary proposals.
- The second session is the three-week Monsoon Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.
- Winter Session (3rd session) is held from November to December.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following consists of Parliament?
- The President
- The Lok Sabha
- The Rajya Sabha
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
- In 1954, the Hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People respectively.
- The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders) and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
- The former represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the latter represents the people of India as a whole.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Under the Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of three parts viz, the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
- In 1954, the Hindi names ‘Rajya Sabha’ and ‘Lok Sabha’ were adopted by the Council of States and the House of People respectively.
- The Rajya Sabha is the Upper House (Second Chamber or House of Elders) and the Lok Sabha is the Lower House (First Chamber or Popular House).
- The former represents the states and union territories of the Indian Union, while the latter represents the people of India as a whole.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 3 of 10
3. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements regarding the Rajya Sabha:
- The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- All states are equally represented in Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?
Correct
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
- For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
- However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their population.
- USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members –2 from each state.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The representatives of states in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of state legislative assemblies.
- The election is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
- The seats are allotted to the states in the Rajya Sabha on the basis of population. Hence, the number of representatives varies from state to state.
- For example, Uttar Pradesh has 31 members while Tripura has 1 member only.
- However, in USA, all states are given equal representation in the Senate irrespective of their population.
- USA has 50 states and the Senate has 100 members –2 from each state.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 4 of 10
4. Question
1 pointsWhich Constitutional Amendment reduced the age of voter from 21 to 18?
Correct
The election is based on the principle of universal adult franchise.
- Every Indian citizen who is above 18 years of age and who is not disqualified under the provisions of the Constitution or any law is eligible to vote at such election.
- The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The election is based on the principle of universal adult franchise.
- Every Indian citizen who is above 18 years of age and who is not disqualified under the provisions of the Constitution or any law is eligible to vote at such election.
- The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 5 of 10
5. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- Rajya Sabha is a continuing chamber and not subject to dissolution.
- Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber and subjected to dissolution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
- Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times.
- Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves.
- However, the President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is a continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year.
- Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and presidential nominations at the beginning of every third year. The retiring members are eligible for re-election and renomination any number of times.
- Unlike the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha is not a continuing chamber. Its normal term is five years from the date of its first meeting after the general elections, after which it automatically dissolves.
- However, the President is authorized to dissolve the Lok Sabha at any time even before the completion of five years and this cannot be challenged in a court of law.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 6 of 10
6. Question
1 pointsArticle 112 of Indian Constitution deals with which of the following?
Correct
The Constitution refers to the budget as the ‘annual financial statement’.
- In other words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
- It is the popular name for the ‘annual financial statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution refers to the budget as the ‘annual financial statement’.
- In other words, the term ‘budget’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution.
- It is the popular name for the ‘annual financial statement’ that has been dealt with in Article 112 of the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 7 of 10
7. Question
1 pointsPart VI of Indian Constitution is deals with which of the following?
Correct
Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the state legislature. Though these are similar to that of Parliament, there are some differences as well.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
Articles 168 to 212 in Part VI of the Constitution deal with the organization, composition, duration, officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the state legislature. Though these are similar to that of Parliament, there are some differences as well.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 8 of 10
8. Question
1 pointsWhich of the following state does NOT have bicameral legislature?
Correct
There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures.
- Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system.
- At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral).
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
There is no uniformity in the organization of state legislatures.
- Most of the states have a unicameral system, while others have a bicameral system.
- At present (2019), only six states have two Houses (bicameral).
- These are Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra and Karnataka.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 9 of 10
9. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The maximum members of state legislature are fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 50.
- The Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
- Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.
- For the purpose of holding direct elections to the assembly, each state is divided into territorial constituencies.
- The demarcation of these constituencies is done in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state.
- In other words, the Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The legislative assembly consists of representatives directly elected by the people on the basis of universal adult franchise.
- Its maximum strength is fixed at 500 and minimum strength at 60.
- For the purpose of holding direct elections to the assembly, each state is divided into territorial constituencies.
- The demarcation of these constituencies is done in such a manner that the ratio between the population of each constituency and the number of seats allotted to it is the same throughout the state.
- In other words, the Constitution ensures that there is uniformity of representation between different constituencies in the state.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 10 of 10
10. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The Constitution lays down the qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- The member of a state legislature must be not less than 35 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission for this purpose.
In his oath or affirmation, he swears
- To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
- To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
- He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
- He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The Constitution lays down the following qualifications for a person to be chosen a member of the state legislature.
- He must be a citizen of India.
- He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorized by the Election Commission for this purpose.
In his oath or affirmation, he swears
- To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
- To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
- He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.
- He must possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament.
Source: Laxmikanth
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- Question 1 of 25
1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019:
1.The Legislative Assembly of UT of Jammu and Kashmir can make laws on any subject in State list except land and public order.
2.Parliament has the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the UT of Jammu and Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
: The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct.Incorrect
: The Act provides for a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Legislative Assembly may make laws for any part of the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir related to: (i) any matters specified in the State List of the Constitution, except “Police” and “Public Order”, and (ii) any matter in the Concurrent List applicable to Union Territories.
Further, Parliament will have the power to make laws in relation to any matter for the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Statement 2 is correct. - Question 2 of 25
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 3 of 25
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 4 of 25
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityWhich of the following constitute the ‘Public debt’ of India?
1. Liabilities of Central Government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India
2. Public Account Liabilities of the Central Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts.Incorrect
Public Debt denotes liabilities payable by the Central Government, which are contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India, as provided under Article 292 of the Constitution of India.
It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
Public Debt has been further classified under two heads, i.e., Internal Debt and External Debt. Internal debt is categorized into marketable and non-marketable securities.
Marketable government securities include G-secs and T-Bills issued through auction. Non-marketable securities include intermediate treasury bills issued to state governments, special securities issued to national Small Savings Fund among others.
Most of the external debt is sourced from multilateral agencies such as International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), Asian Development Bank (ADB), etc. and official bilateral agencies.
Public Account Liabilities include liabilities on account of National Small Saving Fund (NSSF), State Provident Funds, Reserve Funds and Deposits, and Other Accounts. - Question 5 of 25
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 6 of 25
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: polityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 7 of 25
7. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 8 of 25
8. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 9 of 25
9. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. [Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 10 of 25
10. Question
1 pointsCategory: Polity“The cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together”- is said by?
Correct
In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
• The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
• As Bagehot points out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together.’
• Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers.Incorrect
In the parliamentary system, the legislature and the executive are together and inseparable.
• The cabinet acts as the leader of legislature as well as the executive.
• As Bagehot points out, ‘the cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and legislative departments together.’
• Hence, the whole system of government goes against the letter and spirit of the theory of separation of powers. In fact, there is a fusion of powers. - Question 11 of 25
11. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 12 of 25
12. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Scheduled Castes in India:
1.The President after consultation with the Governor may by public notification specify the castes or groups within castes deemed to be Scheduled Castes for a state.
2.Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes any caste or group within any caste.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Both statements are correct.
As per the provisions of the Constitution under Article 341:
Clause (1); President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Clause (2); Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under the clause given above any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification.Incorrect
Both statements are correct.
As per the provisions of the Constitution under Article 341:
Clause (1); President may with respect to any State or Union territory, and where it is a State, after consultation with the Governor thereof, by public notification, specify the castes, races or tribes or parts of or groups within castes, races or tribes which shall for the purposes of this Constitution be deemed to be Scheduled Castes in relation to that State or Union territory, as the case may be.
Clause (2); Parliament may by law include in or exclude from the list of Scheduled Castes specified in a notification issued under the clause given above any caste, race or tribe or part of or group within any caste, race or tribe, but save as aforesaid a notification issued under the said clause shall not be varied by any subsequent notification. - Question 13 of 25
13. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following matters both the houses of Parliament is/are equal in powers?
1. Election of the President.
2. Approving the proclamation of emergency.
3. Proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.
• It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
• Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament. The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard.
• Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
• Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
• Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers.Incorrect
Under article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to Lok Sabha which means Rajya Sabha cannot make or unmake the Government.
• It can, however, exercise control over the Government and this function becomes quite prominent, particularly when the Government does not enjoy majority in Rajya Sabha.
• Ministers may belong to either House of Parliament. The Constitution does not make any distinction between the Houses in this regard.
• Every Minister has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House but he is entitled to vote only in the House of which he is a member.
• Similarly, with regard to powers, privileges and immunities of the Houses of Parliament, their members and committees thereof, the two Houses are placed absolutely on equal footing by the Constitution.
• Other important matters in respect of which both Houses enjoy equal powers are election and impeachment of the President, election of the Vice-President, approving the Proclamation of Emergency, the proclamation regarding failure of constitutional machinery in States and financial emergency. In respect of receiving reports and papers from various statutory authorities, etc., both Houses have equal powers. - Question 14 of 25
14. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWith reference to the Parliamentary Standing Committees, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Committee meetings are held in ‘closed door’.
2. Members of the committee are bound by their party whips.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are lawmaking and oversight of the executive branch of the government.
• Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees (Parliamentary standing committees) are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
• Given the volume of legislative business, discussing all Bills under the consideration of Parliament in detail on the floor of the House is impossible.
• Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
• At least in principle, the assumption is that the smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better informed discussions.
• Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence.Incorrect
In a parliamentary democracy, Parliament has broadly two functions, which are lawmaking and oversight of the executive branch of the government.
• Parliament is the embodiment of the people’s will. Committees (Parliamentary standing committees) are an instrument of Parliament for its own effective functioning.
• Given the volume of legislative business, discussing all Bills under the consideration of Parliament in detail on the floor of the House is impossible.
• Committees are platforms for threadbare discussion on a proposed law.
• At least in principle, the assumption is that the smaller cohort of lawmakers, assembled on the basis of the proportional strength of individual parties and interests and expertise of individual lawmakers, could have more open, intensive and better informed discussions.
• Committee meetings are ‘closed door’ and members are not bound by party whips, which allows them the latitude for a more meaningful exchange of views as against discussions in full and open Houses where grandstanding and party positions invariably take precedence. - Question 15 of 25
15. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityArrange the following stages of budget presentation in Parliament:
1. Presentation of budget
2. General discussion
3. Voting on demands for grants
4. Scrutiny by departmental committees
5. Passing of appropriation bill
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:
• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill.Incorrect
The budget goes through the following six stages in the Parliament:
• Presentation of budget.
• General discussion.
• Scrutiny by departmental committees.
• Voting on demands for grants.
• Passing of appropriation bill.
• Passing of finance bill. - Question 16 of 25
16. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the legislative powers of the President:
1. President can summon or adjourn the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
2. He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings when the
offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the
following legislative powers.
•He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can
also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
•He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after
each general election and the first session of each year.
•He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
•He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,
he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
•He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social
service.
•He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha).Incorrect
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the
following legislative powers.
•He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can
also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
•He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after
each general election and the first session of each year.
•He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill
pending in the Parliament or otherwise.
•He can appoint any member of the Lok Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker fall vacant. Similarly,
he can also appoint any member of the Rajya Sabha to preside over its proceedings
when the offices of both the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman fall vacant.
•He nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons having
special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art and social
service.
•He can nominate two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian
Community.
NOTE: The adjournment is done by presiding officers (speaker / deputy speaker in Lok
Sabha and Chairman / Deputy Chairman in Rajya Sabha). - Question 17 of 25
17. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Prime Minister of India:
1. The term of the Prime Minister is fixed for five years and he holds office during the
pleasure of the president.
2. Article 75 of the Indian Constitution contains the procedure for selection and
appointment of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The Prime Minister of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds
office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president
can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the
majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for
the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime
Minister shall be appointed by the presidentIncorrect
The Prime Minister of India.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The term of the Prime Minister is not fixed and he holds
office during the pleasure of the president. However, this does not mean that the president
can dismiss the Prime Minister at any time. So long as the Prime Minister enjoys the
majority support in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the President.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for
the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime
Minister shall be appointed by the president - Question 18 of 25
18. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following committee/committees comes under the Standing
Committees to enquire of Rajya Sabha?
1. Committee on Petitions.
2. Committee of Privileges.
3. Rules Committee.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing
Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
•Committee on Petitions
•Committee on Privileges
•Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinise and control:
•Committee on Government Assurances
•Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
•Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
•Business advisory committee
•Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
•House Committee
•General Purpose Committee
•Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya SabhaIncorrect
The Committees may be classified as Ad-hoc Committees and Standing
Committees. Standing Committees may be divided in terms of their functions:
Committees to enquire:
•Committee on Petitions
•Committee on Privileges
•Ethics Committee
Committees to scrutinise and control:
•Committee on Government Assurances
•Committee on Subordinate Legislation and
•Committee on Papers Laid on the Table
Committees relating to day-to-day business of the House:
•Business advisory committee
•Rules Committee
House Keeping Committees:
•House Committee
•General Purpose Committee
•Committee on Provision of Computers to Members of Rajya Sabha - Question 19 of 25
19. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following judicial powers and functions of the Parliament:
1. It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
2. It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
3. It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its contempt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
The judicial powers and functions of the Parliament include the following:
•It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
•It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
•It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme
Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor
general to the president.
•It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt.Incorrect
The judicial powers and functions of the Parliament include the following:
•It can impeach the President for the violation of the Constitution.
•It can remove the Vice-President from his office.
•It can recommend the removal of judges (including chief justice) of the Supreme
Court and the high courts, chief election commissioner, comptroller and auditor
general to the president.
•It can punish its members or outsiders for the breach of its privileges or its
contempt. - Question 20 of 25
20. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich types of questions are asked in Question Hour of Parliament?
1. Starred Questions
2. Un-starred Questions
3. Short Notice Questions
4. Questions addressed to private members
Select the correct answer using the code given below:Correct
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of
public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions
are of four types:—
•Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral
answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by
supplementary questions by members.
•Unstarred Questions- an Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is
desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.
•Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of
public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10
days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.
•Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private
Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill,
Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that
Member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is same as that
followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the
Speaker may consider necessary.Incorrect
Members have a right to ask questions to elicit information on matters of
public importance within the special cognizance of the Ministers concerned. The questions
are of four types:—
•Starred Questions- A Starred Question is one to which a member desires an oral
answer from the Minister in the House and is required to be distinguished by
him/her with an asterisk. Answer to such a question may be followed by
supplementary questions by members.
•Unstarred Questions- an Unstarred Question is one to which written answer is
desired by the member and is deemed to be laid on the Table of the House by
Minister. Thus it is not called for oral answer in the House and no supplementary
question can be asked thereon.
•Short Notice Questions- A member may give a notice of question on a matter of
public importance and of urgent character for oral answer at a notice less than 10
days prescribed as the minimum period of notice for asking a question in ordinary
course. Such a question is known as ‘Short Notice Question’.
•Questions to Private Members- A Question may also be addressed to a Private
Member (Under Rule 40 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha), provided that the subject matter of the question relates to some Bill,
Resolution or other matter connected with the business of the House for which that
Member is responsible. The procedure in regard to such questions is same as that
followed in the case of questions addressed to a Minister with such variations as the
Speaker may consider necessary. - Question 21 of 25
21. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Governor of a State:
1. S/he holds office during the pleasure of the President.
2. Constitution mandates a Governor for each state with no two states having same person
as Governor.
3. Constitution does not provide any qualifications for appointment as Governor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign
his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as
Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment
as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. Constitution under article 155 and 156 provides that
the Governor of a State shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand
and seal.
Term of office of Governor: The Governor shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. The Governor may, by writing under his hand addressed to the President, resign
his office and a Governor shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on which he
enters upon his office:
Provided that a Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold
office until his successor enters upon his office.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 153 states that there shall be a Governor for each State:
Provided that nothing in this article shall prevent the appointment of the same person as
Governor for two or more States.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Article 157 states that no person shall be eligible for appointment
as Governor unless he is a citizen of India and has completed the age of thirty-five years.
Further limitations are provided under article 158: The Governor shall not be a member of
either House of Parliament or of a House of the Legislature and he shall not hold any other office of profit. - Question 22 of 25
22. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the questions asked in the Parliament
by the legislators:
1. Starred Questions are ones to which answers are desired to be given orally on the floor of
the House during the Question Hour.
2. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer in the House and on
which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires
an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer
in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To
such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the
Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and
can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary
question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary
questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is
asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to
the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. A Starred Question is one to which a member desires
an oral answer in the House and which is distinguished by an asterisk mark. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary questions can be asked thereon.
Statement 2 is correct. An Un-starred Question is one which is not called for oral answer
in the House and on which no supplementary questions can consequently be asked. To
such a question, a written answer is deemed to have been laid on the Table after the
Question Hour by the Minister to whom it is addressed.
A Short Notice Question is one which relates to a matter of urgent public importance and
can be asked with shorter notice than the period of notice prescribed for an ordinary
question. Like a starred question, it is answered orally followed by supplementary
questions.
The Question to a Private Member is addressed to the Member himself/herself and it is
asked when the subject matter of it pertains to any Bill, Resolution or any matter relating to
the Business of the House for which that Member is responsible. - Question 23 of 25
23. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Deputy Speaker of Loksabha:
1. Constitution mandates the Deputy Speaker to be chosen from among the members of the
opposition parties in the LokSabha.
2. The salaries and allowances of the Deputy Speaker of the LokSabha are expenditure
charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall,
as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party
members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House
of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Article 93 states that the House of the People shall,
as soon as may be, choose two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and
Deputy Speaker.
There no provision for the Deputy Speaker to be mandatorily be from the opposition party
members.
Statement 2 is correct. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy
Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House
of the People are the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. - Question 24 of 25
24. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliament of India:
1. Constitution provides for maximum gap of six months between last sitting in one session
and the first sitting in the next session of a house.
2. The President may from time to time prorogue and dissolve either House of the
Parliament.
3. Attorney-General of India has the right to speak/take part in the proceedings of any joint
sitting of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall
not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first
sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or
either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third
of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint
sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88]Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The President shall from time to time summon each
House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall
not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its first
sitting in the next session. [Article 85(1)]
Statement 2 is incorrect. The President may from time to time— (a) prorogue the Houses or
either House; (b) dissolve the House of the People. [Article 85(2)]
The Council of States is not be subject to dissolution, but as nearly as possible one-third
of the members thereof retire on the expiration of every second year. [Article 83(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. Every Minister and the Attorney-General of India shall have the
right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint
sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a
member, but shall not by virtue of this article be entitled to vote. [Article 88] - Question 25 of 25
25. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Department-related
Parliamentary Standing Committees:
1. It has members from LokSabha only.
2. The committees consider the Demands for Grants of the concerned
Ministries/Departments and make a report to the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing
Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the
Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the
Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports
thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Department-related Parliamentary Standing
Committee consists of 31 members; 21 members from LokSabha, nominated by the
Speaker, LokSabha and 10 from RajyaSabha nominated by the Chairman, RajyaSabha.
A Minister is not eligible to be nominated as a member of any of the Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Functions of the Committee:
-to consider the Demands for Grants and make Reports on the same to the Houses;
-to examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Speaker, LokSabha or the
Chairman, RajyaSabha as the case may be, and make Reports thereon;
-to consider Annual Reports of the concerned Ministries/Departments and make Reports
thereon; and
-to consider national basic long-term policy documents presented to the Houses.
Legislature Part-2
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1. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Union Council of Ministers:
1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
3. The Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the
Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his
functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the
other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
[Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. [Article 75(2)]Incorrect
Constitution mandates that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the
Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his
functions, act in accordance with such advice. [Article 74(1)]
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the
House of the People. [Article 75(3)]
Statement 2 is correct. The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the
other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
[Article 75(1)]
Statement 3 is correct. The Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the
President. [Article 75(2)] - Question 2 of 6
2. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Business Advisory Committee of
Lok Sabha:
1. The Speaker is the ex-officio Chairperson of the committee.
2. The members are elected by the members of the house among themselves.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha
consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the
discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in
consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the
Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being
nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every
year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of
the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and
thereafter as and when necessary.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct. The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha
consists of 15 members including the Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairperson.
The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should be allotted for the
discussion of such government legislative and other business as the Speaker, in
consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the Committee.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Almost all sections of the House are represented on the
Committee.
The members are nominated by the Speaker. In practice, a new Committee after being
nominated by the Speaker is constituted and assumes office in the first week of June every
year. Casual vacancies are filled by nomination of new members for the unexpired term of
the Committee. The Committee generally meets at the beginning of each Session and
thereafter as and when necessary. - Question 3 of 6
3. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding the Parliamentary Committees:
1. The ad hoc Committees are appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on a
continuous basis.
2. The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Statement 1 is incorrect. Broadly, Parliamentary Committees are of two
kinds – Standing Committees and ad hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are
elected or appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on, more or less, on a
continuous basis. The ad hoc Committees are appointed as need arises and they cease to
exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to them.
Statement 2 is correct. The three Financial Committees – Committees on Estimates,
Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct group as they keep a vigil
over Government expenditure and performance.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from
the Lok Sabha.
The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It ensures that public
money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure.Incorrect
Statement 1 is incorrect. Broadly, Parliamentary Committees are of two
kinds – Standing Committees and ad hoc Committees. The Standing Committees are
elected or appointed every year or periodically and their work goes on, more or less, on a
continuous basis. The ad hoc Committees are appointed as need arises and they cease to
exist as soon as they complete the task assigned to them.
Statement 2 is correct. The three Financial Committees – Committees on Estimates,
Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct group as they keep a vigil
over Government expenditure and performance.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely from
the Lok Sabha.
The Public Accounts Committee scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of
Government and reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General. It ensures that public
money is spent in accordance with Parliament’s decision and calls attention to cases of waste, extravagance, loss or nugatory expenditure. - Question 4 of 6
4. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityWhich of the following correctly defines the term ‘Adjournment sine die’ in Indian parliamentary system?
Correct
Adjournment of Debate: Adjournment on a motion adopted by the House, of
the debate on a Motion/Resolution/Bill on which the House is then engaged until a future
day or sine die as specified in the motion.
Adjournment of the sitting of the House: Termination of the sitting of the House which
meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting.
Adjournment sine die: Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date
being fixed for the next sitting.
Prorogation: The termination of a session by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.Incorrect
Adjournment of Debate: Adjournment on a motion adopted by the House, of
the debate on a Motion/Resolution/Bill on which the House is then engaged until a future
day or sine die as specified in the motion.
Adjournment of the sitting of the House: Termination of the sitting of the House which
meets again at the time appointed for the next sitting.
Adjournment sine die: Termination of a sitting of the House without any definite date
being fixed for the next sitting.
Prorogation: The termination of a session by an order made by the President under article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. - Question 5 of 6
5. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding parliamentary committees:
1. The members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn from both houses of Parliament.
2. The Department Related Standing Committees consider the Demands for Grants of
various Ministries/Departments of Government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees –
Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct
group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee reports on ‘what economies,
improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with policy
underlying the estimates’ may be affected. It also examines whether the money is well laid
out within limits of the policy implied in the estimates and suggests the form in which
estimates shall be presented to Parliament.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely
from the Lok Sabha
Statement 2 is correct. There are 24 Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
The functions of these Committees are:
-To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of Government of
India and make reports to the Houses;
-To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha
or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
-To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
-To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports
thereon.Incorrect
Among the Standing Committees, the three Financial Committees –
Committees on Estimates, Public Accounts and Public Undertakings – constitute a distinct
group as they keep an unremitting vigil over Government expenditure and performance.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Estimates Committee reports on ‘what economies,
improvements in organisation, efficiency or administrative reform consistent with policy
underlying the estimates’ may be affected. It also examines whether the money is well laid
out within limits of the policy implied in the estimates and suggests the form in which
estimates shall be presented to Parliament.
While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public Accounts and
Public Undertakings, the members of the Committee on Estimates are drawn entirely
from the Lok Sabha
Statement 2 is correct. There are 24 Department Related Standing Committees (DRSCs).
The functions of these Committees are:
-To consider the Demands for Grants of various Ministries/Departments of Government of
India and make reports to the Houses;
-To examine such Bills as are referred to the Committee by the Chairman, Rajya Sabha
or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports thereon;
-To consider Annual Reports of ministries/departments and make reports thereon; and
-To consider policy documents presented to the Houses, if referred to the Committee by the
Chairman, Rajya Sabha or the Speaker, Lok Sabha, as the case may be, and make reports
thereon. - Question 6 of 6
6. Question
1 pointsCategory: PolityConsider the following statements regarding Parliamentary procedure:
1.Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees constituted from time to time in pursuance of the Rules of Procedure.
2.Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?Correct
Most of the business of Parliament is, therefore, transacted in Committees of the House, known as Parliamentary Committees.
Statement 1 is correct. Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees which are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. The work of these Committees is of continuous nature. The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills.Incorrect
Most of the business of Parliament is, therefore, transacted in Committees of the House, known as Parliamentary Committees.
Statement 1 is correct. Standing Committees are permanent and regular committees which are constituted from time to time in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha. The work of these Committees is of continuous nature. The Financial Committees, DRSCs and some other Committees come under the category of Standing Committees.
Statement 2 is correct. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills.
Executive-2022
Marking Pattern
Correct Answer : 2
Wrong Answer : -0.66

Executive-2021
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1. Question
1 pointsConsider the following statements:
- The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion ministers from both Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility.
- Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The fundamental principle underlying the working of parliamentary system of government is the principle of collective responsibility.
- Article 75 clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
- This means that all the ministers own joint responsibility to the Lok Sabha for all their acts of omission and commission. They work as a team and swim or sink together.
- When the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers, all the ministers have to resign including those ministers who are from the Rajya Sabha.
Source: Laxmikanth
- Question 2 of 10
2. Question
1 pointsWith reference to the Cabinet, which of the following role/roles is/are played by Cabinet?
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
- It is the chief coordinator of Central administration.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
The role of Cabinet:
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
Source: Laxmikanth
Incorrect
The role of Cabinet:
- It is the highest decision-making authority in our politico-administrative system.
- It is the chief policy formulating body of the Central government.
- It is the supreme executive authority of the Central government.
- It is chief coordinator of Central administration.
- It is an advisory body to the president and its advice is binding on him.
Source: Laxmikanth